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Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway?
Which of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?
Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes:
The flowers are zygomorphic in: (a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Production of cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants:
Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to: (a) secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels. (b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem. (c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem. (d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem. (e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
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Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
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Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
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Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
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Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
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Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:
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Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous. Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells. Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCO enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Identify the correct set of statements: (a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea (b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin (c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves (d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration (e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:
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Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
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XO type of sex determination can be found in:
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What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?
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Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:
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The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:
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‘Girdling Experiment’ was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
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Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure, makes it a false fruit?
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Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:
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The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood: (a) It is also called as the earlywood (b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels (c) It is lighter in colour (d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings (e) It has lower density Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?
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The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. Which statement is false?
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What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C₄ plants?
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Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait?
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Read the following statements on lipids and find out the correct set of statements: (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more C=C bonds (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called:
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In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?
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Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:
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While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (−) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (−) for another species involved in the interaction?
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Transposons can be used during which one of the following?
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Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R): Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
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Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequences to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequences. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium:
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Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:
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Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
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Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adult vertebrates. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
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At which stage of life is the oogenesis process initiated?
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Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
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Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures. Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆, then what is the formula for maltose?
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Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:
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Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A:
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Tegmina in cockroach arises from:
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Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:
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If 8 Drosophila in a laboratory population of 80 died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.
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In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
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In-situ conservation refers to:
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In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size. Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?
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In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood. Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defence mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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In an E. coli strain, i gene gets mutated and its product cannot bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
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Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:
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Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
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Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to:
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Under normal physiological conditions in human beings every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ______ ml of O₂ to the tissues.
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If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
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Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
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Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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The recombination frequency between genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?
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Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Statements related to human insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contains extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them (c) Insulin used for treating diabetes was extracted from cattle and pigs (d) Pro-hormone insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to foreign insulin Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?
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Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone? (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca²⁺ level in blood (c) Reabsorption of Ca²⁺ by renal tubules (d) Decreases the absorption of Ca²⁺ from digested food (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Ten E.coli cells with ¹⁵N-dsDNA are incubated in medium containing ¹⁴N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from ¹⁵N?
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Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through electric wires to charge the dust particles. Statement II: Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?
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Which of the following statements is not true?
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Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of contraception and their respective actions. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
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Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Which of the following is a correct statement?
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Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?
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At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu²⁺/Cu, Zn²⁺/Zn, Fe²⁺/Fe and Ag⁺/Ag are 0.34 V, −0.76 V, −0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?
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The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺ Statement II: In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl > Na₂SO₄ > Na₃PO₄ In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?
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What is Y in the above reaction?
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What mass of 95% pure CaCO₃ will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the reaction: CaCO₃(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl₂(aq) + CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l) [Calculate up to second place of decimal point]
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Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
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Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?
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Choose the correct statement:
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Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells. Reason (R): In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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Match List-I with List-II:
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Given below are half-cell reactions: Will the permanganate ion, MnO₄⁻, liberate O₂ from water in the presence of an acid?
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Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group. Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring. Choose the most appropriate answer.
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Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is:
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Identify the incorrect statement from the following: Identify the incorrect statement from the following: Identify the incorrect statement from the following: Identify the incorrect statement from the following: Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
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The incorrect statement regarding chirality is:
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Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?
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The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction. The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are:
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Which one is not the correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture.
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO₂ to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO₂ to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K. Choose the most appropriate answer.
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Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
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The IUPAC name of the complex: [Ag(H₂O)₂][Ag(CN)₂] is:
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The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is: [Given pK of CH₃COOH = 4.57]
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Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?
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Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
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Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
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The Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association due to dipole-dipole interactions. Statement II: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. Choose the most appropriate answer.
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increase in the order: H₂O < H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass. Choose the most appropriate answer.
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In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is:
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Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): ICl is more reactive than I₂. Reason (R): I–Cl bond is weaker than I–I bond. Choose the most appropriate answer.
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Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of:
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Compound X on reaction with O₃ followed by Zn/H₂O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is:
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For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min⁻¹ is:
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In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO₄ oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from:
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A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27°C. (Assume O₂ gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is: [Given R = 0.0831 L bar K⁻¹ mol⁻¹]
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl₂, known as Lucas reagent. Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas reagent. Choose the most appropriate answer.
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3O₂(g) ⇌ 2O₃(g) For the above reaction at 298 K, Kc is found to be 3.0 × 10⁻⁵⁹. If the concentration of O₂ at equilibrium is 0.040 M, then concentration of O₃ at equilibrium is:
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Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length 3.608 × 10⁻⁸ cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm⁻³. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
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The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
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The order of energy absorbed responsible for the colour of complexes: (A) [Ni(H₂O)₂(en)₂]²⁺ (B) [Ni(H₂O)(en)]²⁺ (C) [Ni(en)₃]²⁺ is:
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Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?
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The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of: (a) particulate matter (b) ozone (c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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The product formed from the following reaction sequence is:
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The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:
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Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
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Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R and R (R >> R) have equal charges. The potential would be
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When two monochromatic lights of frequency and are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potentials become and respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is:
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As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
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If the tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is
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Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
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The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
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A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is
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The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is
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When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity and relative permeability , the velocity of light, , is given by ( = velocity of light in vacuum)
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In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is: ²²₁₁Na → X + e⁺ + ν
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An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is:
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The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1ˢᵗ, 2ⁿᵈ, 3ʳᵈ and 4ᵗʰ seconds is:
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Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the centre of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is:
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The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is:
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An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms⁻¹. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is: (g = 10 ms⁻²)
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A copper wire of length and radius has electrical resistance of . The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of is
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If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble:
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Given below are two statements: Statement I: Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element I(dl) of a current carrying conductor only. Statement II: Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, I(dl), while the latter being produced by a vector source, q. In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is:
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A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t), is:
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The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s² is:
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The peak voltage of the AC source is equal to:
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The dimensions [MLT⁻²A⁻²] belong to the:
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The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocities is:
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In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in:
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The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is:
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Plane angle and solid angle have:
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In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is:
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A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index √3, at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be:
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In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be:
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A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of gravitational field intensity at that point is:
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A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is:
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Let T₁ and T₂ be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio T₁ : T₂ is:
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A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is:
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Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:
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The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is:
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Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s and 2.0 × 10⁸ m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is:
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Match List-I with List-II:
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A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 μF, resistance 50 Ω is connected to an AC source of voltage V = 200 sin(100t) volt. If the resonance frequency of the LCR circuit is ν₀ and the frequency of AC source is ν, then:
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A ball is projected with a velocity 10 ms⁻¹, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be:
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From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field inside and outside region of the wire is:
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Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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The truth table for the given logic circuit is:
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A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass numbers 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is:
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A Wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q:
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The area of a rectangular field (in m²) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is:
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A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s⁻¹. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10⁻⁵ T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be:
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Two point charges −q and +q are placed at a distance L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R >> L) varies as:
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A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by a 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is:
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If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of of third Bohr orbit of Li²⁺ ion?
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