NEET 2026
Previous Year Questions

The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is:

In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?

In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?

In the lac operon, the z gene codes for:

Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?

Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?

The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?

2(C₅₁H₉₈C₆) + 145 O₂ → 102 CO₂ + 98 H₂O + energy The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation would be:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence. A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases. B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe. C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes. D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix? A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins. C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine. D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following: A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C$_4$ plants use the C$_3$ pathway of CO$_2$ fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway. C. In C$_4$ plants, photorespiration does not occur. D. C$_3$ plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy. E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis. Choose the answer from the options given below:

Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in a correct sequence. A. Digestion of cell walls. B. Isolation of naked protoplasts. C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast. D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants. E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is

How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?

Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of Solanaceae family?

Which of the following is an in situ conservation method?

Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.

In racemose inflorescence, ________.

Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis: A. Microspore tetrads B. Sporogenous tissue C. Pollen grains D. Pollen mother cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Identify the correct statements about biomolecules. A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

‘The Evil Quartet’ of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following is a triploid cell?

Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969) included: A. Cell structure B. Body organization C. Presence of flagellum D. Reproduction E. Phylogenetic relationships Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule?

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Arrange the following events occurring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order: A. Increase in blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate B. Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone C. Fall in glomerular filtration rate D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order: A. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues B. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ across alveolar membrane C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO₂ rich alveolar air is released out D. Cellular respiration E. Transport of gases by the blood Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order: A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells. B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood. C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs. D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood. E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes: Identify the enzyme class 'E' from the following options:

The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on ________.

What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood groups, respectively?

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of: A. Bulging eyes B. Vocal sacs C. Webbed digits in feet D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots Choose the correct answer from the options given below

A group of researchers procured some fish-like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; attached to fish skin with circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present. Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?

Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately?

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The human protein named α-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ______.

Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes.

Select the incorrect statements from the following: A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete. B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms. C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes. D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in class Chondrichthyes. E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature. Choose the answer from the options given below:

Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are ______.

Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?

Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping: A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh⁻ᵛᵉ blood and mother with Rh⁺ᵛᵉ blood. B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings. C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched. D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is Rh⁻ᵛᵉ and the foetus is Rh⁺ᵛᵉ. E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below

The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.

Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction: A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca⁺⁺ into sarcoplasm. C. Increase in Ca⁺⁺ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges. D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge. E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? A. Human skull is monocondylic. B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint. C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven. D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic. E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements: A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division. B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes. C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids. D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis. E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in ______ related to the same nephron.

Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?

Choose the correct statements regarding frog’s anatomy: A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine. B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs. D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes. E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

In a population of grasshopper species, chromosome number of some members is 23 and some others possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ______.

In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?

Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete from outer to inner side: A. Zona pellucida B. Perivitelline space C. Corona radiata D. Plasma membrane of ovum Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

What is the reason behind production of large holes in Swiss cheese?

The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which genes control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively?

Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:

Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions: A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA. D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cells: A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein. B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. C. Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium. E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Match List I with List II related to muscular/skeletal system: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is:

The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:

Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species: A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. B. Both species benefit in mutualism. C. Both species benefit in commensalism. D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.

Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines.

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Consider the following reaction: 2A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g) ΔU° = −10 kJ mol⁻¹ and ΔS° = −44 J K⁻¹ at 298 K Identify the correct option with ΔG° for the reaction and spontaneity of the reaction at 298 K. (Given: R = 8.31 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

In a qualitative analysis, Bi³⁺ is detected by appearance of precipitate of BiO(OH)(s). Calculate pH when the following equilibrium is established at 298 K: BiO(OH)(s) ⇌ BiO⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq), K = 4 × 10⁻¹⁰ (Given: log2 = 0.3010)

The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form:

Compound P(C₈H₈O) gives a red-orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent and does not reduce Fehling's reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, P gives an aromatic acidic product Q that produces effervescence on treatment with aq. NaHCO₃. Compound P and Q respectively are:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z. X and Z, respectively, are:

The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5.4 g of urea is: (Given: Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol⁻¹; Nₐ = 6.022 × 10²³ particles mol⁻¹)

Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand?

The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because:

In the following reaction sequence, X and Z respectively are:

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is:

Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence. The suitable method that can be used for separation of products X and Y is:

Identify the correct statements: (A) The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass: 60 g mol⁻¹) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m. (B) The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass: 40 g mol⁻¹) in 450 mL of solution is 0.278 M at 298 K. (C) Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water. (D) The solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure. (E) For a binary mixture of A and B, the number of moles of A and B are nₐ and nᵦ respectively. The mole fraction of B will be: Xᵦ = nₐ / (nₐ + nᵦ) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

During Lassaigne’s test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from:

A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is: (Given: Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mol⁻¹, 1F = 96487 C mol⁻¹)

For a certain reaction R → Product, the plot of concentration [R] versus time has a negative slope as shown. The order of reaction is:

Identify the correct statement about ClF₃ from the following options:

In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute H₂SO₄ was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned blue litmus paper red. Identify the correct anion:

At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X⁻ and HX. K$_b$ for X⁻ is 10⁻¹⁰. What is the pH of this buffer solution?

Calculate emf of the half cell:

The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of Ti²⁺ (3d²) is:

Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

The correct formal charges on oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively are:

Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change observed at alkaline pH close to the equivalence point is:

When 1 dm³ of CO₂ gas is passed over hot coke, the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes 1.4 dm³. The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is: