NTA cancelled the 3 May 2026 exam over a suspected paper leak and held it again on 21 June. Both papers are here.
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3 May (cancelled)
The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is:
3 May (cancelled)
In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?
3 May (cancelled)
In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?
3 May (cancelled)
In the lac operon, the z gene codes for:
3 May (cancelled)
Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:
3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
3 May (cancelled)
Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?
3 May (cancelled)
Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?
3 May (cancelled)
The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is:
3 May (cancelled)
Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?
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3 May (cancelled)
2(C₅₁H₉₈C₆) + 145 O₂ → 102 CO₂ + 98 H₂O + energy The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation would be:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence. A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases. B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe. C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes. D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix? A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins. C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine. D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following: A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C plants use the C pathway of CO fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway. C. In C plants, photorespiration does not occur. D. C plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy. E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis. Choose the answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in a correct sequence. A. Digestion of cell walls. B. Isolation of naked protoplasts. C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast. D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants. E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is
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3 May (cancelled)
How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of Solanaceae family?
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following is an in situ conservation method?
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.
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3 May (cancelled)
In racemose inflorescence, ________.
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3 May (cancelled)
Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis: A. Microspore tetrads B. Sporogenous tissue C. Pollen grains D. Pollen mother cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Identify the correct statements about biomolecules. A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
‘The Evil Quartet’ of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Which one of the following is a triploid cell?
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3 May (cancelled)
Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969) included: A. Cell structure B. Body organization C. Presence of flagellum D. Reproduction E. Phylogenetic relationships Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Arrange the following events occurring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order: A. Increase in blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate B. Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone C. Fall in glomerular filtration rate D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order: A. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues B. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ across alveolar membrane C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO₂ rich alveolar air is released out D. Cellular respiration E. Transport of gases by the blood Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order: A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells. B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood. C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs. D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood. E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:
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3 May (cancelled)
The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes: Identify the enzyme class 'E' from the following options:
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3 May (cancelled)
The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on ________.
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3 May (cancelled)
What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood groups, respectively?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?
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3 May (cancelled)
Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of: A. Bulging eyes B. Vocal sacs C. Webbed digits in feet D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots Choose the correct answer from the options given below
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3 May (cancelled)
A group of researchers procured some fish-like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; attached to fish skin with circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present. Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately?
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
The human protein named α-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ______.
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3 May (cancelled)
Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes.
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3 May (cancelled)
Select the incorrect statements from the following: A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete. B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms. C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes. D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in class Chondrichthyes. E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature. Choose the answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are ______.
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?
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3 May (cancelled)
Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping: A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh⁻ᵛᵉ blood and mother with Rh⁺ᵛᵉ blood. B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings. C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched. D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is Rh⁻ᵛᵉ and the foetus is Rh⁺ᵛᵉ. E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below
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3 May (cancelled)
The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.
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3 May (cancelled)
Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction: A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca⁺⁺ into sarcoplasm. C. Increase in Ca⁺⁺ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges. D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge. E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? A. Human skull is monocondylic. B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint. C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven. D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic. E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements: A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division. B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes. C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids. D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis. E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in ______ related to the same nephron.
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3 May (cancelled)
Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?
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3 May (cancelled)
Choose the correct statements regarding frog’s anatomy: A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine. B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs. D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes. E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
In a population of grasshopper species, chromosome number of some members is 23 and some others possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ______.
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3 May (cancelled)
In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?
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3 May (cancelled)
Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete from outer to inner side: A. Zona pellucida B. Perivitelline space C. Corona radiata D. Plasma membrane of ovum Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
What is the reason behind production of large holes in Swiss cheese?
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3 May (cancelled)
The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which genes control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively?
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3 May (cancelled)
Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:
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3 May (cancelled)
Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.
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3 May (cancelled)
Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions: A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA. D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cells: A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein. B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. C. Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium. E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II related to muscular/skeletal system: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is:
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3 May (cancelled)
The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:
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3 May (cancelled)
Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species: A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. B. Both species benefit in mutualism. C. Both species benefit in commensalism. D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.
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3 May (cancelled)
Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines.
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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3 May (cancelled)
Consider the following reaction: 2A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g) ΔU° = −10 kJ mol⁻¹ and ΔS° = −44 J K⁻¹ at 298 K Identify the correct option with ΔG° for the reaction and spontaneity of the reaction at 298 K. (Given: R = 8.31 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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3 May (cancelled)
In a qualitative analysis, Bi³⁺ is detected by appearance of precipitate of BiO(OH)(s). Calculate pH when the following equilibrium is established at 298 K: BiO(OH)(s) ⇌ BiO⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq), K = 4 × 10⁻¹⁰ (Given: log2 = 0.3010)
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3 May (cancelled)
The pair of molecules that are metamers among the following is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form:
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3 May (cancelled)
Compound P(C₈H₈O) gives a red-orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent and does not reduce Fehling's reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, P gives an aromatic acidic product Q that produces effervescence on treatment with aq. NaHCO₃. Compound P and Q respectively are:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z. X and Z, respectively, are:
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3 May (cancelled)
The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5.4 g of urea is: (Given: Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol⁻¹; Nₐ = 6.022 × 10²³ particles mol⁻¹)
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3 May (cancelled)
Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
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3 May (cancelled)
Which one of the following is an ambidentate ligand?
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3 May (cancelled)
The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because:
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3 May (cancelled)
In the following reaction sequence, X and Z respectively are:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence. The suitable method that can be used for separation of products X and Y is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Identify the correct statements: (A) The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass: 60 g mol⁻¹) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m. (B) The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass: 40 g mol⁻¹) in 450 mL of solution is 0.278 M at 298 K. (C) Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water. (D) The solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure. (E) For a binary mixture of A and B, the number of moles of A and B are nₐ and nᵦ respectively. The mole fraction of B will be: Xᵦ = nₐ / (nₐ + nᵦ) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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3 May (cancelled)
During Lassaigne’s test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from:
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3 May (cancelled)
A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is: (Given: Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mol⁻¹, 1F = 96487 C mol⁻¹)
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3 May (cancelled)
For a certain reaction R → Product, the plot of concentration [R] versus time has a negative slope as shown. The order of reaction is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Identify the correct statement about ClF₃ from the following options:
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3 May (cancelled)
In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute H₂SO₄ was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned blue litmus paper red. Identify the correct anion:
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3 May (cancelled)
At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X⁻ and HX. K for X⁻ is 10⁻¹⁰. What is the pH of this buffer solution?
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3 May (cancelled)
Calculate emf of the half cell:
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3 May (cancelled)
The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of Ti²⁺ (3d²) is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
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3 May (cancelled)
The correct formal charges on oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively are:
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3 May (cancelled)
Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change observed at alkaline pH close to the equivalence point is:
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3 May (cancelled)
When 1 dm³ of CO₂ gas is passed over hot coke, the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes 1.4 dm³. The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is:
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3 May (cancelled)
The major product Z formed in the following sequence of reactions is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Given the expression for the rate constant of a first-order reaction at temperature T(K): ln k = 14.34 − (1.25 × 10⁴)/T. The energy of activation in kcal mol⁻¹ is: (Given: k in s⁻¹, R = 1.987 cal mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
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3 May (cancelled)
Given below are certain reactions. Identify the reaction for which Kp ≠ Kc.
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3 May (cancelled)
Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
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3 May (cancelled)
Mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with negative deviation from Raoult’s law due to:
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3 May (cancelled)
The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products X and Y of the following reactions, respectively, are:
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3 May (cancelled)
The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
The current (I) in the circuit shown below is: (All diodes are ideal and identical)
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3 May (cancelled)
The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is:
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3 May (cancelled)
For a simple pendulum having time period T, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time (t) is represented by:
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3 May (cancelled)
A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 Ω. If the current in the circuit is 0.6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is:
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3 May (cancelled)
A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of by mass. The temperature of the mixture is . The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases is: (Atomic mass of argon and molecular mass of chlorine )
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3 May (cancelled)
A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism (ABC) as shown in the figure. The refracted ray (QR) is parallel to its base (BC) and the angle of incidence (i) is 50°. Then the angle of deviation (δ) is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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3 May (cancelled)
In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is −3.4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately: (Take 1 eV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and 1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)
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3 May (cancelled)
A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0.12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m s⁻² is: (g = 10 m/s²)
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3 May (cancelled)
Five capacitors of capacitances C₁ = C₂ = C₃ = C₄ = 10 μF and C₅ = 2.5 μF are connected as shown, along with a battery of 50 V. The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are:
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3 May (cancelled)
The amount of work done to raise a mass 'm' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth 'R' will be:
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3 May (cancelled)
Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5.580 kg is measured to be 9.0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as X × 10³ kg m⁻³ where the value of X is:
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3 May (cancelled)
The following plots show variation of velocity (v) with time (t) of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct?
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3 May (cancelled)
The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0.02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately: (Consider mass of the bob = 20 g)
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3 May (cancelled)
In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is λ/3 will be:
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3 May (cancelled)
In the circuit shown below, the voltage appearing across the diode D will be of the form:
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3 May (cancelled)
An AC circuit contains a resistance of 1 kΩ, a capacitor of 0.1 μF and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately:
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3 May (cancelled)
In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe. A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy. B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
For a travelling harmonic wave y(x,t)=2.0 cos 2π(10t−0.0080x+0.35), where x and y are in cm and t in s. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0.5 m is:
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3 May (cancelled)
The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively:
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3 May (cancelled)
Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is:
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3 May (cancelled)
The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is: (g = 9.8 m/s²)
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3 May (cancelled)
In a vernier caliper, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier calipers is:
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3 May (cancelled)
When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times (g = 9.8 m s⁻²): A. Person A has reaction time 0.20 s B. Person B has reaction time 0.22 s C. Person C has reaction time 0.18 s D. Person D has reaction time 0.19 s E. Person E has reaction time 0.21 s What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person?
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3 May (cancelled)
A uniform metallic wire having resistance 4 Ω is bent to form a square loop (ABCD). A resistance of 2 Ω is connected between points B and D and a battery of 2 V is connected across points A and C as shown. The value of current I is:
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3 May (cancelled)
A room heater is rated 400 W, 220 V. If the supply voltage drops to 200 V, what will be the power consumed (approximately)?
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3 May (cancelled)
A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of 3.14 × 10⁻³ T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively: (Take μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T m/A)
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3 May (cancelled)
A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is 2 cm s⁻¹, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be:
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3 May (cancelled)
Four statements are given (A is mass number): A. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A¹ᐟ³. B. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A. C. The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect. D. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of 2.29 × 10¹⁷ kg/m³ and mass of 19.926 × 10⁻²⁷ kg. Its mass number A is approximately: (Take R₀ = 1.2 × 10⁻¹⁵ m, 4π = 12.56)
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3 May (cancelled)
Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum L, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as: (Take π² = 9.8 and g = 9.8 m/s²)
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3 May (cancelled)
An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be:
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3 May (cancelled)
A thin wire of length 'L' and linear mass density 'm' is bent into a circular ring (in x-y plane) with centre C as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis yy′ will be:
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3 May (cancelled)
A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0–10 A. The shunt required is:
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3 May (cancelled)
In a metre bridge experiment (see figure), the positions of the cell E and galvanometer G are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer:
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3 May (cancelled)
The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value?
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3 May (cancelled)
The figure given below shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius 'a' carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field (B) with distance (r) from the axis of the conductor in the region is:
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3 May (cancelled)
Two statements are given below: A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly. B. This current is called reverse saturation current. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
Which of the following statements are correct? A. Inside a conductor, the electrostatic field is zero. B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density. C. The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation. D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point. E. The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck's constant as 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ J s)
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3 May (cancelled)
In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens after refraction:
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3 May (cancelled)
A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm. How deep can it go below the water surface? (Consider density of water = 1000 kg m⁻³, 1 atm = 1 × 10⁵ Pa and gravitational acceleration g = 10 m/s²)
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3 May (cancelled)
Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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3 May (cancelled)
A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is 4.42 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?
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3 May (cancelled)
At a certain temperature T(K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The number of vertebrae in a human is ________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called ________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Cell theory was formulated by ______________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells? (a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits (b) They can have plasmids (c) They contain mesosome (d) They have peroxisomes Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses ___________ .
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Cristae B. Cisternae C. Thylakoids D. Phospholipid List-II: I. Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast II. Infoldings in mitochondria III. Cell membrane IV. Disc shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as __________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct? (a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis (b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone (c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (d) It does not secrete prolactin Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCo is shown below: 3-Phosphoglycerate + X. Identify “X” from the given options:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Mad cow disease is caused by _______.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?
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21 Jun Re-exam
In water, frogs respire using _____________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of ________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Starch B. Antibody C. Concanavalin A D. Glut-4 List-II: I. Fights infection II. Energy storage III. Glucose transport IV. Lectin Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement I : When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry. Statement II : In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Endomembrane system includes _______.
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21 Jun Re-exam
How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia. Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Spherical B. Rod C. Comma D. Spirillum List-II: I. Vibrio II. Cocci III. Spirilla IV. Bacilli Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family? (a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic (b) Calyx have five sepals and are united (c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous (d) Ovary is inferior Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.
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21 Jun Re-exam
The number of action potentials generated by sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is _______ per minute.
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21 Jun Re-exam
How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Family B. Genus C. Class D. Phylum E. Order List-II: I. Sapindales II. Dicotyledonae III. Anacardiaceae IV. Angiospermae V. Mangifera Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order. (a) Genus (b) Class (c) Order (d) Phylum (e) Family (f) Kingdom (g) Species Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Marginal placentation B. Axile placentation C. Parietal placentation D. Free central placentation List-II: I. Argemone II. Tomato III. Primrose IV. Pea Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Sphenopsida class belongs to _____________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct? (a) Do not occur in plants (b) is consumed and is generated (c) Phosphoglycolate is formed (d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ___________ .
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Genus represents __________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following is not a prokaryote?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?
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21 Jun Re-exam
The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is ________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes B. Fusion of two nuclei C. Generation of haploid spores List-II: I. Meiosis II. Plasmogamy III. Karyogamy Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion. Statement II : All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I. Statement II : Meiosis I resembles mitosis. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the day?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body. (a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are ______.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following is used as a clot buster?
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21 Jun Re-exam
The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut _______
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Down’s syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement II : Turner’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Sperm motility is due to ___________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Natural selection can lead to _________. (a) stabilisation (b) genetic drift (c) directional change (d) disruption Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
The method of directly of injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following struture is not a part of the male reproductive system?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest. (a) Plants (b) Birds (c) Fishes (d) Invertebrates (e) Mammals Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles. Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?
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21 Jun Re-exam
A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is ________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: (A) Excess growth hormone (B) Luteinizing hormone (C) Vasopressin (D) Oxytocin List-II: (I) Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney (II) Contraction of uterus during child birth (III) Acromegaly (IV) Ovulation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by _________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Sponges exchange with by __________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther ?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of _____ .
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds?
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21 Jun Re-exam
If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct? (a) The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. (b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop. (c) Reabsorption of and water takes place in Henle's loop. (d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle's loop. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following is not evidence for evolution?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement II : Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is ______.
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21 Jun Re-exam
During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______step.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason R : Resources are finite. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of ________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs? (a) Bone marrow (b) Tonsils (c) Spleen (d) Thymus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
For a person with blood group ‘O’, which of the following is not a possible combination of parents’ blood group genotypes?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous. Reason R : Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in ________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced. Reason R : Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The covering of ovum at ovulation is _________.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Both species are harmed B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited C. Both species are benefited D. One is benefited while the other has no effect List-II: I. Predation II. Mutualism III. Competition IV. Commensalism Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf. Reason R : Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is for plant cells. Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following statements are Correct ? (a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional (b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted (c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Transformation B. Cloning site C. Selection D. Ori List-II: I. Restriction enzyme II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria III. Replication IV. Antibiotic Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement-I : is chiral. Statement-II : trans – is chiral. (Given : ) In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty orbital with
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21 Jun Re-exam
In potash alum, the ratio of and ions is
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21 Jun Re-exam
The correct statement about peptides and proteins is
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21 Jun Re-exam
The numbers and were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are
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21 Jun Re-exam
The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at 298 K is Salt | at 298 K | | |
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21 Jun Re-exam
Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, and Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is
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21 Jun Re-exam
The standard electrode potential () for the half-cell reaction at 298 K is (Given : and at 298 K)
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21 Jun Re-exam
In an acidic medium, 10 mL of 0.25 M oxalic acid is titrated with solution. If the volume of solution required to reach end point is 10 mL, the strength of the solution is
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21 Jun Re-exam
According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K. The values of and are ( is universal gas constant)
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21 Jun Re-exam
is a zero-order reaction, where . If the initial concentration of A is 2 M, then the time taken to complete of the reaction will be
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Generally, transition metals have high melting points. Reason R: Involvement of -electrons in addition to -electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of versus has a slope of at 298 K. At 0.01 M concentration of XY, the value of is . The limiting molar conductivity of ion (, in ) at 298 K will be (Given : )
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21 Jun Re-exam
The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of 116 g of n-butane is (Given: atomic mass in amu H = 1, C = 12 and O = 16)
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21 Jun Re-exam
For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below. If the energy of activation is and , the temperature at which the rate constant becomes , is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Heating NaCl with concentrated and results in oxidation of Mn. Statement-II : Heating NaI with concentrated and results in reduction of Mn. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for (Given: Atomic number of Ti = 22, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27)
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21 Jun Re-exam
The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is (Given : Atomic numbers of Ce = 58, Nd = 60, Tb = 65 and Ho = 67)
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21 Jun Re-exam
The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider the reversible processes for 1.0 mol of an ideal gas as shown in the figure. , , and represent work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively; and are changes in the internal energy for the processes 2 and 4, respectively. [use ] The correct option is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F. Reason R: The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled orbital In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids. A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range. B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.
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21 Jun Re-exam
One of the products formed in the following reaction is (cyclohexylmagnesium bromide + cyclohexylamine)
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21 Jun Re-exam
The correct statement is
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21 Jun Re-exam
A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to . At , the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is . The standard entropy change ( in ) of the protein upon denaturation at is closest to
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match the species in List-I with their geometry in List-II. List-I: A. B. C. D. List-II: I. Tetrahedral II. Square Planar III. Trigonal bipyramidal IV. Square pyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement I : trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with in gives the following product. Statement II : cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline gives the following product. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option. ;
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21 Jun Re-exam
The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is (Given : py = pyridine and en = )
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21 Jun Re-exam
Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product. A. B. C. D. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
Match the vitamins in List I with their sources in List II List I: A. vitamin A B. vitamin C. vitamin E D. vitamin K List II: I. meat II. sunflower oil III. green leafy vegetables IV. carrots Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is
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21 Jun Re-exam
The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is (2,2-dimethylcyclopentan-1-one)
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21 Jun Re-exam
Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement-I : Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid. Statement-II : Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
The green paramagnetic species formed by heating at 513 K is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option.
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21 Jun Re-exam
A 1 : 3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction () against distance () from the nucleus. The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity A. B. C. D. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
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21 Jun Re-exam
The highest occupied molecular orbital for is
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21 Jun Re-exam
A particle of mass moves along a horizontal axis from to . The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of as , where , are constants of appropriate dimensions, so that . The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is , where is the acceleration due to gravity. The value of is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas is half that of another ideal gas . The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas is twice the diameter of the molecules of . If number densities of the gases and are and , respectively, the correct option is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations and , where a time varying current is flowing, as shown in the figure. The induced emf between points and for configuration is and that for configuration is . The ratio is: [Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]
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21 Jun Re-exam
For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the harmonic of an open-ended pipe is and that for the harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is , the ratio is
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider a long solenoid of length and radius . If is the number of turns per unit length and is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by , where , and . The average speed of the particle, in from to is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider the following nuclear reaction Take masses of , and as , and , respectively. The value for the reaction, in keV, is: [Given: ]
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21 Jun Re-exam
A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time , then variation of the photocurrent and magnitude of the stopping potential with time is best represented by:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Three identical capacitors, , and , each of the capacitance , are connected to a battery of voltage , as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor and total energy stored in the system are and , respectively, then the ratio is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between and is . The area of cross-section at and are and , respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in , is: [Take density of water = ]
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21 Jun Re-exam
A current flows through a metallic circular loop of radius as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment is half that of . Magnitude of magnetic field at the centre of the loop is :
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21 Jun Re-exam
In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity () with the ratio of density of spherical ball () to density of the liquid (), is best represented by:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Two planets and with equal mass have radii and , respectively, where . The escape speeds of and are and , respectively. Then is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius is proportional to:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires and carry currents and , respectively, in the same direction. The wire has uniform mass per unit length and lies on an insulated floor. The wire is kept fixed at a height above the floor. The minimum magnitude of so that the wire does not rise from the floor is: [ is the acceleration due to gravity and is the permeability of free space.]
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21 Jun Re-exam
An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of is reverse biased with a negative input voltage . The magnitude of voltage difference between point and is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas () decreases from to . The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as )
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21 Jun Re-exam
A ray of light with wavelength is incident on three different photoelectric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelength of these photoelectric cells are , , and , respectively and the magnitude of stopping potentials of these cells are , and , respectively. The relation between and threshold wavelengths are , and . The correct option is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
A photon and an electron, each of energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron to that of photon , is: [Take speed of light = , charge of electron = and mass of electron = ]
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21 Jun Re-exam
Which of the following measurements require ‘index correction’?
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21 Jun Re-exam
A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius , having uniform positive charge density , as shown in the figure. The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by and at distance and respectively, from the centre of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is . The value of is : ( is the permittivity of vacuum)
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider three media , and with refractive indices 1, 1.25, and 1.5 respectively. The medium having a thickness of 5 cm is placed between extended media and as shown in the figure. An object is placed at the centre of medium . If viewed from medium near the normal direction, the apparent depth of is . For similar observation from medium , the apparent depth is . The value of , in cm, is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two-point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point . During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum of the system, as a function of ?
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21 Jun Re-exam
The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius is increased by a small amount . If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is , the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density . If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period . If the same cork floats in another liquid of density , then the similar oscillation has time period . The value of is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is 10. When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of the wire to be , the actual length of the wire is :
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21 Jun Re-exam
A solid sphere of radius and mass is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere of radius and mass . Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of is and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of is . The difference is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is kg and the spring constant is . At a given instant, the extension of the spring is -meter and the speed of the particle is . On the - plane, if the graph of as a function of is a circle, then the correct option is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The lens combination as shown in the figure, consists of two lenses, and , of the focal lengths and , respectively. The position of the image formed is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
An ac voltage Volt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is: (Given : , , )
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21 Jun Re-exam
A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre . Its angular momentum is and computed about points and , respectively, with . The value of is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the direction. The area of the loop varies with time , as in appropriate units. The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power dissipated in the loop as a function of time is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
A point charge is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points , and as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are , , , respectively. The points and are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is :
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius and total charge . A point charge () with mass is released from rest at a distance of from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is: ( is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces).
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21 Jun Re-exam
In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered -particles is plotted as a function of scattering angle . Which of the following options represents the correct plot?
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, , while the other one has a negative temperature of coefficient, , as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by and . At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is . As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider that , , represents Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien’s displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of is
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21 Jun Re-exam
An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a dielectric constant, , has the electric field, where is the amplitude and is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is
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21 Jun Re-exam
One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity . The radius of the orbit is . The value of is: [Take the mass of electron to the , charge of electron = and ]
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21 Jun Re-exam
A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius , which is banked at an angle . If the car travels at a speed , then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking the acceleration due to gravity to be , the value of is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Three identical p-n junction diodes , , and are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If the width of the depletion regions of , and are , and , respectively, then the correct option is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications. Part of the electromagnetic spectrum: P. Microwave Q. UV rays R. Gamma rays S. Radio wave Applications: I. For purifying the water II. For warming the food III. For AM and FM communication systems IV. For treating the Cancer cells The correct option is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
Bob of mass at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length , as shown in the figure. Point mass of mass travelling horizontally with speed hits bob elastically. The bob rises meter after the collision. Taking the acceleration due to gravity and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of is:
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21 Jun Re-exam
An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities of the gas is , then the value of is:
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