NEET 2026 · Physics

NEET 2026 Physics Questions with Solutions

The NEET 2026 paper had 47 Physics questions from 23 chapters.

These questions are from the 3 May 2026 paper, which NTA cancelled over a suspected paper leak. The exam was held again on 21 June; that Re-exam paper is being added.

Current Electricity had the most questions (5), followed by Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance and 4 other chapters with 3 each.

Every question below has its answer and a step-by-step explanation.

Physics questions
47
Chapters covered
23
Solved free here
47 of 47
Easy / Medium / Hard
27 / 19 / 1

Difficulty is NEET MIND's own tag for each question.

Chapter-wise: NEET 2026 Physics

How many questions each chapter had in NEET 2026. Open a chapter for its questions from every year.

  1. Current Electricity5 Qs
  2. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter3 Qs
  3. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance3 Qs
  4. Moving Charges and Magnetism3 Qs
  5. Nuclei3 Qs
  6. Oscillations3 Qs
  7. Units and Measurements3 Qs
  8. Alternating Current2 Qs
  9. Laws of Motion2 Qs
  10. Motion in a Straight Line2 Qs
  11. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments2 Qs
  12. Semiconductor Electronics2 Qs
  13. System of Particles and Rotational Motion2 Qs
  14. Thermodynamics2 Qs
  15. Wave Optics2 Qs
  16. Electromagnetic Induction1 Q
  17. Electromagnetic Waves1 Q
  18. Gravitation1 Q
  19. Kinetic Theory1 Q
  20. Mechanical Properties of Fluids1 Q
  21. Mechanical Properties of Solids1 Q
  22. Waves1 Q
  23. Work, Energy and Power1 Q

All 47 NEET 2026 Physics questions

In paper order. Try each one, then open the answer where it is shown.

  1. Question 1 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q1)

    Units and Measurements3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is:
    1. Option A: 3 × 10⁸
    2. Option B: 500
    3. Option C: 3 × 10¹⁰
    4. Option D: 400
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 400

    Explanation

    Speed of light in the new unit system is taken as 1. Time taken = 6 min 40 s = 6×60 + 40 = 400 s Distance = speed × time Since v = 1, d = 1 × 400 = 400 Hence the correct answer is option (D).

  2. Question 2 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q2)

    Mechanical Properties of Solids3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. Option B: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. Option D: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Young’s modulus = Stress/Strain = FL/[A(ΔL)] → II Compressibility = 1/(Bulk modulus) = -(1/ΔP)(ΔV/V) → III Bulk modulus = -P(V/ΔV) → IV Poisson’s ratio = Lateral strain/Longitudinal strain = Δd/ΔL × (L/d) → I Hence the correct matching is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (Option D).

  3. Question 3 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q3)

    Current Electricity3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The current (I) in the circuit shown below is: (All diodes are ideal and identical)
    1. Option A: 5/3 A
    2. Option B: 5/9 A
    3. Option C: 1/3 A
    4. Option D: 15/2 A
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 15/2 A

    Explanation

    For ideal diodes: forward resistance = 0 and reverse resistance = ∞\infty. Only the branches containing 4Ω4\Omega and 2Ω2\Omega conduct. Hence the equivalent circuit has two parallel resistors across 10V10V. Current: I=104+102=52+5=152 AI = \frac{10}{4} + \frac{10}{2} = \frac{5}{2} + 5 = \frac{15}{2}\,A Therefore, the correct answer is 152 A\boxed{\frac{15}{2}\,A}.

  4. Question 4 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q4)

    System of Particles and Rotational Motion3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is:
    1. Option A: 900
    2. Option B: 600
    3. Option C: 150
    4. Option D: 300
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 150

    Explanation

    Convert angular speeds into SI units: ω1=600×2π60=20π rad/s\omega_1 = 600\times\frac{2\pi}{60}=20\pi\,\text{rad/s} ω2=1200×2π60=40π rad/s\omega_2 = 1200\times\frac{2\pi}{60}=40\pi\,\text{rad/s} Angular acceleration: α=ω2−ω1t=40π−20π10=2π rad/s2\alpha=\frac{\omega_2-\omega_1}{t} =\frac{40\pi-20\pi}{10} =2\pi\,\text{rad/s}^2 Using rotational equation of motion: ω22=ω12+2αθ\omega_2^2=\omega_1^2+2\alpha\theta Substitute values: (40π)2=(20π)2+2(2π)θ(40\pi)^2=(20\pi)^2+2(2\pi)\theta 1600π2=400π2+4πθ1600\pi^2=400\pi^2+4\pi\theta 1200π2=4πθ1200\pi^2=4\pi\theta θ=300π rad\theta=300\pi\,\text{rad} Number of revolutions: N=θ2π=300π2π=150N=\frac{\theta}{2\pi} =\frac{300\pi}{2\pi} =150 Therefore, the correct answer is: 150\boxed{150}

  5. Question 5 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q5)

    Oscillations3 May (cancelled)Medium
    For a simple pendulum having time period T, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time (t) is represented by:
    1. Option A: Option 1
    2. Option B: Option 2
    3. Option C: Option 3
    4. Option D: Option 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Option 3

    Explanation

    For SHM, velocity is: v=Aωcos⁡(ωt+ϕ)v=A\omega\cos(\omega t+\phi) Hence kinetic energy: K=12mv2K=\frac12 mv^2 K=12mA2ω2cos⁡2(ωt+ϕ)K=\frac12 mA^2\omega^2\cos^2(\omega t+\phi) Thus, K∝cos⁡2(ωt+ϕ)K\propto \cos^2(\omega t+\phi) Since cos⁡2θ\cos^2\theta is always non-negative and has period T/2T/2, kinetic energy becomes zero twice in one oscillation and reaches maximum twice. Therefore the correct variation is **Option (C)**.

  6. Question 6 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q6)

    Current Electricity3 May (cancelled)Easy
    A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 Ω. If the current in the circuit is 0.6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is:
    1. Option A: 10 V
    2. Option B: 1.2 V
    3. Option C: 12 V
    4. Option D: 10.8 V
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 10.8 V

    Explanation

    Terminal voltage of a battery is: V = E - ir Substituting values: V = 12 - (0.6 × 2) V = 12 - 1.2 = 10.8 V Hence, option (D) is correct.

  7. Question 7 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q7)

    Kinetic Theory3 May (cancelled)Easy
    A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2:12:1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 27∘C27^\circ C. The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases (vrmsArvrmsCl)\left(\dfrac{v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{\mathrm{Ar}}}{v_{\mathrm{rms}}^{\mathrm{Cl}}}\right) is: (Atomic mass of argon =40.0 u=40.0\,u and molecular mass of chlorine =70.0 u=70.0\,u)
    1. Option A: 72\dfrac{\sqrt{7}}{2}
    2. Option B: 74\dfrac{7}{4}
    3. Option C: 72\dfrac{7}{2}
    4. Option D: 27\dfrac{2}{\sqrt{7}}
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 72\dfrac{\sqrt{7}}{2}

    Explanation

    For gases at the same temperature: Thus, vrms∝1Mv_{rms} \propto \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{M}} Therefore, Substituting: Hence, vrmsArvrmsCl=72\dfrac{v_{rms}^{Ar}}{v_{rms}^{Cl}}=\dfrac{\sqrt7}{2} Therefore, option (A) is correct.

  8. Question 8 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q8)

    Ray Optics and Optical Instruments3 May (cancelled)Medium
    A ray of monochromatic light is passing through an equilateral prism (ABC) as shown in the figure. The refracted ray (QR) is parallel to its base (BC) and the angle of incidence (i) is 50°. Then the angle of deviation (δ) is:
    1. Option A: 45°
    2. Option B: 35°
    3. Option C: 40°
    4. Option D: 55°
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 40°

    Explanation

    Since the prism is equilateral, prism angle A = 60°. The refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to the base, hence the path is symmetric and: i = e = 50° Using prism relation: Substituting: Therefore: Hence, option (C) is correct.

  9. Question 9 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q9)

    Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. Option D: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    ["A. E = hν → Energy of photon → IV","B. Diffraction and interference confirm wave nature of light → III","C. λ = h/p represents de Broglie wavelength → I","D. Compton effect confirms particle nature of light → II","","Correct matching:"]

  10. Question 10 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q10)

    Nuclei3 May (cancelled)Medium
    In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is −3.4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately: (Take 1 eV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and 1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)
    1. Option A: 2.1 × 10⁻⁹ m
    2. Option B: 2.1 × 10⁻⁸ m
    3. Option C: 2.1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m
    4. Option D: 2.1 × 10⁻¹¹ m
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 2.1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m

    Explanation

    For hydrogen atom: Total energy, E = -k e² / (2r) Magnitude: |E| = k e² / (2r) Substitute: 3.4 eV = (9×10⁹ × (1.6×10⁻¹⁹)²)/(2r) Converting eV to joule: 3.4 × 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ = (9×10⁹ × (1.6×10⁻¹⁹)²)/(2r) r = (9×10⁹ × 1.6×10⁻¹⁹)/(2×3.4) r = 2.12 × 10⁻¹⁰ m ≈ 2.1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m Hence option (C) is correct.

  11. Question 11 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q11)

    Laws of Motion3 May (cancelled)Easy
    A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0.12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m s⁻² is: (g = 10 m/s²)
    1. Option A: 2.1
    2. Option B: 1.8
    3. Option C: 1.5
    4. Option D: 1.2
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 1.2

    Explanation

    For the box to remain at rest relative to the trolley, static friction must provide the required acceleration. Maximum static friction: fₘₐₓ = μₛN Since: N = mg Maximum acceleration occurs when: ma = μₛmg Therefore: a = μₛg Substitute: μₛ = 0.12, g = 10 m/s² ⇒ a = 0.12 × 10 ⇒ a = 1.2 m/s² Hence option (D) is correct.

  12. Question 12 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q12)

    Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Five capacitors of capacitances C₁ = C₂ = C₃ = C₄ = 10 μF and C₅ = 2.5 μF are connected as shown, along with a battery of 50 V. The equivalent capacitance and the charges on each capacitor respectively are:
    1. Option A: 5 μF, 125 μC on C₁ to C₄ and 25 μC on C₅
    2. Option B: 5 μF, 125 μC on all capacitors
    3. Option C: 5 μF, 250 μC on all capacitors
    4. Option D: 4 μF, 250 μC on C₁ to C₄ and 125 μC on C₅
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) 5 μF, 125 μC on all capacitors

    Explanation

    Capacitors C₁, C₂, C₃ and C₄ (each 10 μF) are connected in series. Equivalent capacitance of series combination: 1/C = 1/10 + 1/10 + 1/10 + 1/10 ⇒ C = 2.5 μF This 2.5 μF combination is in parallel with C₅ = 2.5 μF. Therefore: Ceq = 2.5 + 2.5 = 5 μF Charge on equivalent branch: Q = CV = 2.5 × 50 Q = 125 μC For capacitors in series, charge remains same: q₁ = q₂ = q₃ = q₄ = 125 μC For capacitor C₅: q₅ = 2.5 × 50 = 125 μC Hence all capacitors carry 125 μC and equivalent capacitance is 5 μF. Therefore option (B) is correct.

  13. Question 13 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q13)

    Gravitation3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The amount of work done to raise a mass 'm' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth 'R' will be:
    1. Option A: 2mgR
    2. Option B: mgR/4
    3. Option C: mgR
    4. Option D: mgR/2
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) mgR/2

    Explanation

    Work done equals change in gravitational potential energy: W = U₂ − U₁ Initial position: at Earth's surface (r = R) U₁ = −GMm/R Final position: height = R above surface Thus final distance from Earth's center: r = 2R U₂ = −GMm/(2R) Therefore: W = (−GMm/2R) − (−GMm/R) W = GMm/2R Using: GM/R² = g ⇒ GM = gR² Substitute: W = (gR²m)/(2R) W = mgR/2 Hence option (D) is correct.

  14. Question 14 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q14)

    Units and Measurements3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5.580 kg is measured to be 9.0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as X × 10³ kg m⁻³ where the value of X is:
    1. Option A: 7.654
    2. Option B: 7.6
    3. Option C: 7.65
    4. Option D: 7.7
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 7.7

    Explanation

    Density: ρ = Mass / Volume Given: Mass = 5.580 kg Side = 9.0 cm = 9.0 × 10⁻² m Volume: V = (9.0 × 10⁻²)³ V = 729 × 10⁻⁶ m³ Density: ρ = 5.580 / (729 × 10⁻⁶) ρ = 7.654 × 10³ kg m⁻³ Applying significant figures: Mass has 4 significant figures, Side measurement (9.0 cm) has 2 significant figures. Therefore final answer must have 2 significant figures. Thus: ρ ≈ 7.7 × 10³ kg m⁻³ Hence X = 7.7 and option (D) is correct.

  15. Question 15 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q15)

    Motion in a Straight Line3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The following plots show variation of velocity (v) with time (t) of a ball thrown vertically upward, and falling back. Which of the following plots is/are correct?
    1. Option A: C only
    2. Option B: D only
    3. Option C: B only
    4. Option D: A and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) C only

    Explanation

    For a ball thrown vertically upward and returning under gravity, acceleration remains constant and downward throughout the motion: Acceleration = −g Therefore the slope of the velocity-time graph must remain constant and negative during the entire journey. Hence velocity decreases linearly with time: - Positive during upward motion - Zero at highest point - Negative during downward motion Thus the correct graph is a straight line with constant negative slope crossing the time axis. Only graph C satisfies this condition. Hence option (A) is correct.

  16. Question 16 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q16)

    Oscillations3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0.02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately: (Consider mass of the bob = 20 g)
    1. Option A: 0.2 m/s
    2. Option B: 1.41 m/s
    3. Option C: 14.1 m/s
    4. Option D: 2.0 m/s
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) 1.41 m/s

    Explanation

    Total mechanical energy of the pendulum remains constant: E = KE + PE = 0.02 J At equilibrium position: Potential energy = 0 Therefore: Total energy = Kinetic energy ½mv² = 0.02 Given: m = 20 g = 0.02 kg Substitute: ½ × 0.02 × v² = 0.02 0.01v² = 0.02 v² = 2 v = √2 v ≈ 1.41 m/s Hence option (B) is correct.

  17. Question 17 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q17)

    Wave Optics3 May (cancelled)Medium
    In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is λ/3 will be:
    1. Option A: K/4
    2. Option B: K
    3. Option C: 2K
    4. Option D: K/2
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) K/4

    Explanation

    Intensity in YDSE is given by: I = I₀ cos²(φ/2) where phase difference: φ = (2π/λ)Δx For path difference Δx = λ: φ = 2π Therefore: I = I₀ cos²(π) I = I₀ Given: K = I₀ Now for path difference: Δx = λ/3 Phase difference: φ = (2π/λ)(λ/3) φ = 2π/3 Hence: I = I₀ cos²(π/3) I = I₀(1/2)² I = I₀/4 Since K = I₀: I = K/4 Hence option (A) is correct.

  18. Question 18 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q18)

    Semiconductor Electronics3 May (cancelled)Medium
    In the circuit shown below, the voltage appearing across the diode D will be of the form:
    1. Option A: Circuit 1
    2. Option B: Circuit 2
    3. Option C: Circuit 3
    4. Option D: Circuit 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Circuit 4

    Explanation

    The diode becomes reverse biased during the positive half cycle of the input AC signal. When reverse biased: - Current does not flow through the circuit. - Entire input voltage appears across the diode. During the negative half cycle: - Diode becomes forward biased. - Voltage drop across an ideal diode becomes approximately zero. Therefore, voltage across the diode exists only during one half cycle and becomes zero during the other half cycle. Hence the waveform across the diode is a positive half-wave followed by zero. Thus option (D) is correct.

  19. Question 19 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q19)

    Alternating Current3 May (cancelled)Easy
    An AC circuit contains a resistance of 1 kΩ, a capacitor of 0.1 μF and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately:
    1. Option A: 13.5 kHz
    2. Option B: 10.1 kHz
    3. Option C: 20.7 kHz
    4. Option D: 15.9 kHz
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 15.9 kHz

    Explanation

    For a series LCR circuit, resonance frequency is: Given: L = 1 mH = 10⁻³ H C = 0.1 μF = 10⁻⁷ F Substitute: f₀ = 1 / [2π√(10⁻³ × 10⁻⁷)] = 1 / [2π × 10⁻⁵] ≈ 1.59 × 10⁴ Hz = 15.9 kHz Hence option (D) is correct.

  20. Question 20 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q20)

    Wave Optics3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe. A. As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy. B. Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A is true and B is also true
    2. Option B: A is false, but B is true
    3. Option C: A is true, but B is false
    4. Option D: Both A and B are false
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A is true, but B is false

    Explanation

    In interference and diffraction, energy is redistributed and conserved, so statement A is true. Interference and diffraction occur in all wave phenomena including sound waves, hence statement B is false. Therefore, option (C) is correct.

  21. Question 21 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q21)

    Waves3 May (cancelled)Medium
    For a travelling harmonic wave y(x,t)=2.0 cos 2π(10t−0.0080x+0.35), where x and y are in cm and t in s. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0.5 m is:
    1. Option A: 0.08π rad
    2. Option B: 0.8π rad
    3. Option C: 8π rad
    4. Option D: 0.008π rad
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) 0.8π rad

    Explanation

    Given y(x,t)=2.0 cos 2π(10t−0.0080x+0.35). Wave number k=2π×0.008. For Δx=0.5 m=50 cm, phase difference Δϕ=kΔx=2π×0.008×50=0.8π rad. Hence option (B) is correct.

  22. Question 22 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q22)

    Laws of Motion3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively:
    1. Option A: 20 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(4/3) with 8 N force
    2. Option B: 2 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(3/4) with 6 N force
    3. Option C: 2 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(4/3) with 8 N force
    4. Option D: 2 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(3/4) with 8 N force
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 2 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(3/4) with 8 N force

    Explanation

    Resultant force: F = √(8²+6²)=10 N. Acceleration: a=F/m=10/5=2 m s⁻². Direction with respect to 8 N force: tanθ=6/8=3/4, therefore θ=tan⁻¹(3/4). Hence option (D) is correct.

  23. Question 23 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q23)

    Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is:
    1. Option A: 0.5 × 10⁻⁶ J
    2. Option B: 1.0 J
    3. Option C: 1.0 × 10⁻⁶ J
    4. Option D: 0.5 J
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 0.5 × 10⁻⁶ J

    Explanation

    Energy lost = (1/2)[C1C2/(C1+C2)]V². For C1=C2=200 pF and V=100 V: Energy lost = (1/2)(200×200/400)×10⁻¹²×100² = 0.5×10⁻⁶ J. Hence option (A) is correct.

  24. Question 24 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q24)

    Work, Energy and Power3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is: (g = 9.8 m/s²)
    1. Option A: 19.6 W
    2. Option B: 39.2 W
    3. Option C: 19.6 kW
    4. Option D: 39.2 kW
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 19.6 kW

    Explanation

    Power = Work/Time = mgh/t = (1000×9.8×20)/10 = 19600 W = 19.6 kW. Hence option (C) is correct.

  25. Question 25 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q25)

    Units and Measurements3 May (cancelled)Medium
    In a vernier caliper, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier calipers is:
    1. Option A: 0.2 cm
    2. Option B: 0.01 cm
    3. Option C: 0.02 cm
    4. Option D: 0.1 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 0.02 cm

    Explanation

    20 VSD = 16 MSD ⇒ 1 VSD = 16/20 MSD. Least count = 1 MSD − 1 VSD = 1 − 16/20 = 4/20 mm = 0.2 mm = 0.02 cm. Hence option (C) is correct.

  26. Question 26 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q26)

    Motion in a Straight Line3 May (cancelled)Easy
    When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times (g = 9.8 m s⁻²): A. Person A has reaction time 0.20 s B. Person B has reaction time 0.22 s C. Person C has reaction time 0.18 s D. Person D has reaction time 0.19 s E. Person E has reaction time 0.21 s What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person?
    1. Option A: B > E > A > C > D
    2. Option B: C > D > A > B > E
    3. Option C: B > E > A > D > C
    4. Option D: C > D > A > E > B
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) B > E > A > D > C

    Explanation

    Distance covered in free fall is proportional to t². Hence larger reaction time gives larger distance. Ordering reaction times: 0.22 > 0.21 > 0.20 > 0.19 > 0.18 ⇒ B > E > A > D > C. Therefore option (C) is correct.

  27. Question 27 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q27)

    Current Electricity3 May (cancelled)Medium
    A uniform metallic wire having resistance 4 Ω is bent to form a square loop (ABCD). A resistance of 2 Ω is connected between points B and D and a battery of 2 V is connected across points A and C as shown. The value of current I is:
    1. Option A: 2 A
    2. Option B: 8 A
    3. Option C: 4.5 A
    4. Option D: 4 A
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 2 A

    Explanation

    Total wire resistance = 4 Ω, so each side has 1 Ω. The network forms a balanced Wheatstone bridge, hence no current flows through the 2 Ω diagonal resistor. Equivalent resistance across A and C becomes 1 Ω. Thus current I = V/R = 2/1 = 2 A. Therefore option (A) is correct.

  28. Question 28 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q28)

    Current Electricity3 May (cancelled)Easy
    A room heater is rated 400 W, 220 V. If the supply voltage drops to 200 V, what will be the power consumed (approximately)?
    1. Option A: 200 W
    2. Option B: 400 W
    3. Option C: 331 W
    4. Option D: 121 W
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 331 W

    Explanation

    For a heater of constant resistance: P ∝ V². Therefore, P=(200/220)²×400 ≈ 331 W. Hence option (C) is correct.

  29. Question 29 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q29)

    Moving Charges and Magnetism3 May (cancelled)Medium
    A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of 3.14 × 10⁻³ T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil, and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively: (Take μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T m/A)
    1. Option A: 2 A, 10 A m²
    2. Option B: 2.5 A, 20 A m²
    3. Option C: 2 A, 4 A m²
    4. Option D: 2.5 A, 2 A m²
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 2.5 A, 2 A m²

    Explanation

    Magnetic field at centre of coil: B=μ₀Ni/2R. Therefore i=(2RB)/(μ₀N)=2.5 A. Magnetic moment M=NiA=100×2.5×π×(0.05)²≈2 A m². Hence option (D) is correct.

  30. Question 30 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q30)

    Electromagnetic Induction3 May (cancelled)Medium
    A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is 2 cm s⁻¹, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be:
    1. Option A: 4.8 × 10⁻⁴ volt
    2. Option B: 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ volt
    3. Option C: 1.3 × 10⁻⁴ volt
    4. Option D: 1.8 × 10⁻⁴ volt
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 1.8 × 10⁻⁴ volt

    Explanation

    Induced emf ε = Bℓv. Here B=0.3 T, ℓ=3×10⁻² m (shorter side), v=2×10⁻² m s⁻¹. Therefore ε=0.3×3×10⁻²×2×10⁻²=1.8×10⁻⁴ V. Hence option (D) is correct.

  31. Question 31 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q31)

    Nuclei3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Four statements are given (A is mass number): A. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A¹ᐟ³. B. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A. C. The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect. D. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A and C are true, but B and D are false
    2. Option B: B and C are true, but A and D are false
    3. Option C: A and D are true, but B and C are false
    4. Option D: B and D are true, but A and C are false
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) B and D are true, but A and C are false

    Explanation

    Nuclear radius r=r₀A^(1/3). Hence volume V∝r³∝A, so statement B is true and A is false. Mass defect is the difference between the mass of a nucleus and the sum of masses of its constituent nucleons, so D is true and C is false. Hence option (D) is correct.

  32. Question 32 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q32)

    Nuclei3 May (cancelled)Hard
    An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of 2.29 × 10¹⁷ kg/m³ and mass of 19.926 × 10⁻²⁷ kg. Its mass number A is approximately: (Take R₀ = 1.2 × 10⁻¹⁵ m, 4π = 12.56)
    1. Option A: 12
    2. Option B: 20
    3. Option C: 16
    4. Option D: 19
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 12

    Explanation

    Using R = R₀A^(1/3) and volume=(4/3)πR³=M/ρ, solving gives A≈12. Hence option (A) is correct.

  33. Question 33 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q33)

    Oscillations3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum L, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as: (Take π² = 9.8 and g = 9.8 m/s²)
    1. Option A: 0.75 m
    2. Option B: 1.5 m
    3. Option C: 2 m
    4. Option D: 1 m
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 1 m

    Explanation

    Time period T=60/30=2 s. Using T=2π√(l/g), l=gT²/(4π²)=1 m. Hence option (D) is correct.

  34. Question 34 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q34)

    Thermodynamics3 May (cancelled)Easy
    An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be:
    1. Option A: 75 W
    2. Option B: 100 W
    3. Option C: 125 W
    4. Option D: 25 W
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 25 W

    Explanation

    Using first law of thermodynamics: Q=ΔU+W ⇒ 100=ΔU+75 ⇒ ΔU=25 W. Hence option (D) is correct.

  35. Question 35 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q35)

    System of Particles and Rotational Motion3 May (cancelled)Medium
    A thin wire of length 'L' and linear mass density 'm' is bent into a circular ring (in x-y plane) with centre C as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis yy′ will be:
    1. Option A: 3mL³ / 8π
    2. Option B: 3mL³ / 8π²
    3. Option C: 3mL² / 8π
    4. Option D: 3mL² / 8π²
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) 3mL³ / 8π²

    Explanation

    Mass of ring M=mL. Radius r=L/(2π). Using parallel axis theorem: Iyy′=ICM+Mr²=(Mr²/2)+Mr²=(3/2)Mr²=(3/2)(mL)(L/2π)²=3mL³/(8π²). Hence option (B) is correct.

  36. Question 36 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q36)

    Moving Charges and Magnetism3 May (cancelled)Easy
    A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0–10 A. The shunt required is:
    1. Option A: 0.01 Ω
    2. Option B: 0.10 Ω
    3. Option C: 1.0 Ω
    4. Option D: 0.001 Ω
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 0.01 Ω

    Explanation

    Galvanometer current Ig=1 mA=0.001 A, resistance Rg=100 Ω. Shunt current Is≈10 A. Since IgRg=IsRs, Rs=(0.001×100)/10=0.01 Ω. Hence option (A) is correct.

  37. Question 37 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q37)

    Current Electricity3 May (cancelled)Medium
    In a metre bridge experiment (see figure), the positions of the cell E and galvanometer G are interchanged. We shall observe in the galvanometer:
    1. Option A: Only the left-sided deflection
    2. Option B: There will be no deflection irrespective of the position of the jockey
    3. Option C: Only the right-sided deflection
    4. Option D: Both right-sided and left-sided deflection and at balance point, no deflection
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Both right-sided and left-sided deflection and at balance point, no deflection

    Explanation

    Interchanging the cell and galvanometer does not affect the balance condition of the metre bridge. At balance point, galvanometer shows no deflection; otherwise, deflection can be either side. Hence option (D) is correct.

  38. Question 38 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q38)

    Alternating Current3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value?
    1. Option A: 1/120 s
    2. Option B: 1/60 s
    3. Option C: 1/30 s
    4. Option D: 1/240 s
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) 1/240 s

    Explanation

    For AC: i=I₀sin(ωt), where ω=2πf=120π rad/s. Peak occurs at sin(ωt)=1 ⇒ ωt=π/2. Therefore t=(π/2)/(120π)=1/240 s. Hence option (D) is correct.

  39. Question 39 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q39)

    Moving Charges and Magnetism3 May (cancelled)Medium
    The figure given below shows a long straight solid wire of circular cross-section of radius 'a' carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The plot which correctly represents the variation of magnetic field (B) with distance (r) from the axis of the conductor in the region is:
    1. Option A: Graph 1
    2. Option B: Graph 2
    3. Option C: Graph 3
    4. Option D: Graph 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Graph 1

    Explanation

    Inside the conductor (r<a), magnetic field B=(μ₀Ir)/(2πa²), therefore B∝r. Outside the conductor (r>a), B=μ₀I/(2πr), therefore B∝1/r. Hence magnetic field increases linearly inside and decreases inversely outside, matching graph (1).

  40. Question 40 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q40)

    Semiconductor Electronics3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Two statements are given below: A. When the forward bias voltage across a p-n junction diode increases above a certain threshold voltage, the diode current increases significantly. B. This current is called reverse saturation current. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: Both Statements A and B are true
    2. Option B: Statement A is true, but Statement B is false
    3. Option C: Both Statements A and B are false
    4. Option D: Statement A is false, but Statement B is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Statement A is true, but Statement B is false

    Explanation

    Above threshold voltage in forward bias, diode current rises sharply, so statement A is true. This current is forward current, not reverse saturation current. Hence statement B is false. Therefore option (B) is correct.

  41. Question 41 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q41)

    Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are correct? A. Inside a conductor, the electrostatic field is zero. B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density. C. The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation. D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point. E. The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, B and D only
    2. Option B: A, C and E only
    3. Option C: A, C and D only
    4. Option D: C, D and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    A is true: electric field inside a conductor is zero. B is false: E=σ/ε₀ depends on surface charge density. C is true: excess charge resides only on surface. D is true: electric field is normal to surface. E is false: potential inside conductor is constant, not necessarily zero. Hence option (C) is correct.

  42. Question 42 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q42)

    Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter3 May (cancelled)Medium
    For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck's constant as 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ J s)
    1. Option A: 100 nm
    2. Option B: 150 nm
    3. Option C: 200 nm
    4. Option D: 50 nm
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 200 nm

    Explanation

    Threshold wavelength λ₀=hc/W₀=(6.6×10⁻³⁴×3×10⁸)/(6.6×1.6×10⁻¹⁹)≈187.5 nm. Photoelectric effect occurs only for λ<187.5 nm. Therefore 200 nm does not produce photoelectric emission. Hence option (C) is correct.

  43. Question 43 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q43)

    Ray Optics and Optical Instruments3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens after refraction:
    1. Option A: passes through 2F, which is the radius of curvature of the lens
    2. Option B: appears to diverge from the first principal focus
    3. Option C: emerges parallel to the principal axis
    4. Option D: passes through the second principal focus
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) appears to diverge from the first principal focus

    Explanation

    For a concave lens, a ray incident parallel to the principal axis diverges after refraction and appears to come from the first principal focus. Hence option (B) is correct.

  44. Question 44 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q44)

    Mechanical Properties of Fluids3 May (cancelled)Easy
    A submarine is designed to withstand an absolute pressure of 100 atm. How deep can it go below the water surface? (Consider density of water = 1000 kg m⁻³, 1 atm = 1 × 10⁵ Pa and gravitational acceleration g = 10 m/s²)
    1. Option A: 990 m
    2. Option B: 9900 m
    3. Option C: 99 m
    4. Option D: 9000 m
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 990 m

    Explanation

    Absolute pressure: P=P₀+ρgh. Therefore 100×10⁵=10⁵+1000×10×h ⇒ h=990 m. Hence option (A) is correct.

  45. Question 45 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q45)

    Electromagnetic Waves3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
    2. Option B: A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
    3. Option C: A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
    4. Option D: A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III

    Explanation

    Microwaves → klystron/magnetron (IV); Visible light → electron transitions (I); Gamma rays → radioactive decay (II); Infrared → molecular vibrations (III). Hence option (C) is correct.

  46. Question 46 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q56)

    Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter3 May (cancelled)Easy
    A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is 4.42 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?
    1. Option A: 2.71 × 10¹⁹
    2. Option B: 4.06 × 10¹⁹
    3. Option C: 27.2 × 10¹⁹
    4. Option D: 1.35 × 10¹⁹
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 2.71 × 10¹⁹

    Explanation

    Energy converted to light per second = 150×0.08=12 J. Number of photons = 12/(4.42×10⁻¹⁹)=2.71×10¹⁹ photons/s. Hence option (A) is correct.

  47. Question 47 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q74)

    Thermodynamics3 May (cancelled)Easy
    At a certain temperature T(K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then change in internal energy of the system is:
    1. Option A: 400 J
    2. Option B: 300 J
    3. Option C: 700 J
    4. Option D: 500 J
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) 300 J

    Explanation

    Using first law: ΔU=q+w. Here q=+500 J and w=−200 J (work done by system). Therefore ΔU=500−200=300 J. Hence option (B) is correct.

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