NEET 2026 · Biology

NEET 2026 Biology Questions with Solutions

The NEET 2026 paper had 91 Biology questions from 32 chapters. By section: 46 Botany and 45 Zoology.

These questions are from the 3 May 2026 paper, which NTA cancelled over a suspected paper leak. The exam was held again on 21 June; that Re-exam paper is being added.

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes and Principles of Inheritance and Variation had the most questions (6 each), followed by Animal Kingdom, Biodiversity and Conservation and 2 other chapters with 5 each.

Every question below has its answer and a step-by-step explanation.

Biology questions
91
Chapters covered
32
Solved free here
91 of 91
Easy / Medium / Hard
37 / 54 / 0

Difficulty is NEET MIND's own tag for each question.

Chapter-wise: NEET 2026 Biology

How many questions each chapter had in NEET 2026. Open a chapter for its questions from every year.

  1. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes· Botany6 Qs
  2. Principles of Inheritance and Variation· Zoology6 Qs
  3. Animal Kingdom· Zoology5 Qs
  4. Biodiversity and Conservation· Botany5 Qs
  5. Biomolecules· Botany5 Qs
  6. Molecular Basis of Inheritance· Botany5 Qs
  7. Cell: The Unit of Life· Zoology4 Qs
  8. Locomotion and Movement· Zoology4 Qs
  9. Morphology of Flowering Plants· Botany4 Qs
  10. Organisms and Populations· Zoology4 Qs
  11. Photosynthesis in Higher Plants· Botany4 Qs
  12. Biotechnology and Its Applications· Zoology3 Qs
  13. Ecosystem· Botany3 Qs
  14. Evolution· Zoology3 Qs
  15. Human Reproduction· Zoology3 Qs
  16. Plant Growth and Development· Botany3 Qs
  17. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants· Botany3 Qs
  18. Anatomy of Flowering Plants· Botany2 Qs
  19. Body Fluids and Circulation· Zoology2 Qs
  20. Breathing and Exchange of Gases· Zoology2 Qs
  21. Excretory Products and Their Elimination· Zoology2 Qs
  22. Human Health and Disease· Zoology2 Qs
  23. Reproductive Health· Zoology2 Qs
  24. Biological Classification· Botany1 Q
  25. Cell Cycle and Cell Division· Botany1 Q
  26. Chemical Coordination and Integration· Zoology1 Q
  27. Microbes in Human Welfare· Zoology1 Q
  28. Neural Control and Coordination· Zoology1 Q
  29. Plant Kingdom· Botany1 Q
  30. Respiration in Plants· Botany1 Q
  31. Structural Organisation in Animals· Zoology1 Q
  32. The Living World· Botany1 Q

All 91 NEET 2026 Biology questions

In paper order. Try each one, then open the answer where it is shown.

  1. Question 1 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q51)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is:
    1. Option A: RNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases
    2. Option B: DNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases
    3. Option C: RNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases
    4. Option D: DNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) DNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases

    Explanation

    DNA has a double helical structure and contains adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine. RNA is generally single stranded and contains uracil instead of thymine. Hence option (B) is correct.

  2. Question 2 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q91)

    Morphology of Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?
    1. Option A: The root cap zone
    2. Option B: The region of meristematic activity
    3. Option C: The region of elongation
    4. Option D: The region of maturation
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) The region of maturation

    Explanation

    Root hairs develop from epidermal cells in the region of maturation (differentiation), increasing surface area for absorption. Hence option (D) is correct.

  3. Question 3 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q92)

    Plant KingdomBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?
    1. Option A: Funaria
    2. Option B: Pinus
    3. Option C: Selaginella
    4. Option D: Wolffia
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Pinus

    Explanation

    Gymnosperms have naked ovules not enclosed within an ovary. Pinus is a gymnosperm. Hence option (B) is correct.

  4. Question 4 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q93)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In the lac operon, the z gene codes for:
    1. Option A: Permease
    2. Option B: Transacetylase
    3. Option C: beta-galactosidase
    4. Option D: The repressor of lac operon
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) beta-galactosidase

    Explanation

    In lac operon: z gene → β-galactosidase, y gene → permease, a gene → transacetylase. Hence option (C) is correct.

  5. Question 5 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q94)

    Biodiversity and ConservationBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:
    1. Option A: Biofortification
    2. Option B: Bioremediation
    3. Option C: Bioprospecting
    4. Option D: Biomagnification
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Bioprospecting

    Explanation

    Bioprospecting refers to exploring biodiversity for commercially valuable genetic, molecular or biochemical products. Hence option (C) is correct.

  6. Question 6 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q95)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. Option B: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. Option C: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. Option D: A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

    Bt cotton is a genetically modified organism; thermostable DNA polymerase is obtained from Thermus aquaticus; Ti plasmid is from Agrobacterium tumefaciens; pBR322 is a cloning vector in Escherichia coli. Hence option (A) is correct.

  7. Question 7 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q96)

    EcosystemBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    2. Option B: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    4. Option D: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Productivity = rate of biomass production; NPP = GPP − respiration losses; GPP = rate of organic matter production during photosynthesis; secondary productivity = formation of new organic matter by consumers. Hence option (A) is correct.

  8. Question 8 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q97)

    Biodiversity and ConservationBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?
    1. Option A: The present net species extinction rate is zero.
    2. Option B: The current species extinction rate is nearly 10 times faster than in previous episodes.
    3. Option C: The present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.
    4. Option D: The current species extinction rates are far lower than those in previous episodes.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) The present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.

    Explanation

    The ongoing sixth mass extinction is largely due to human activities, with extinction rates estimated to be 100–1000 times higher than pre-human levels. Hence option (C) is correct.

  9. Question 9 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q98)

    BiomoleculesBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?
    1. Option A: Secondary structure
    2. Option B: Tertiary structure
    3. Option C: Primary structure
    4. Option D: Quaternary structure
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Secondary structure

    Explanation

    Alpha-helix is a characteristic feature of the secondary structure of proteins formed by hydrogen bonding. Hence option (A) is correct.

  10. Question 10 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q99)

    Anatomy of Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is:
    1. Option A: To make the leaf impermeable to fungal spores.
    2. Option B: To transport water.
    3. Option C: To perform photosynthesis.
    4. Option D: To minimize water loss during water stress.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) To minimize water loss during water stress.

    Explanation

    Bulliform cells lose water during drought, causing leaves to roll inward and reduce exposed surface area, thereby minimizing water loss. Hence option (D) is correct.

  11. Question 11 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q100)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction:
    1. Option A: Extension → Annealing → Denaturation
    2. Option B: Annealing → Denaturation → Extension
    3. Option C: Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
    4. Option D: Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Denaturation → Annealing → Extension

    Explanation

    PCR steps occur in the order: Denaturation (DNA strands separate) → Annealing (primers bind) → Extension (DNA synthesis by polymerase). Hence option (D) is correct.

  12. Question 12 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q101)

    Cell Cycle and Cell DivisionBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. Option B: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. Option D: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    G₁: growth without DNA replication; S: DNA synthesis; G₂: protein synthesis and growth; M: cell division. Hence A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I. Therefore option (D) is correct.

  13. Question 13 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q102)

    Biodiversity and ConservationBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, B and E only
    2. Option B: A, B and D only
    3. Option C: C, D and E only
    4. Option D: B, C and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    A: habitat loss in Amazon rainforest is correct; B: Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to overexploitation; D: water hyacinth is an invasive species. C is false because Nile perch reduced native cichlid diversity; E is false because associated species may also become extinct. Hence option (B) is correct.

  14. Question 14 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q103)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, B, C and D only
    2. Option B: A, C, D and E only
    3. Option C: B, C, D and E only
    4. Option D: A, B, C, D and E
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A, B, C, D and E

    Explanation

    A transcription unit contains promoter, structural gene and terminator. The promoter lies toward the 5′ end, binds RNA polymerase and determines coding/template strands. Terminator lies toward the 3′ end and signals transcription termination. Hence all statements are correct.

  15. Question 15 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q104)

    The Living WorldBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?
    1. Option A: Biological names are generally in Latin
    2. Option B: Both words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined or printed in italics
    3. Option C: The specific epithet in the biological name starts with a small letter
    4. Option D: The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus

    Explanation

    In binomial nomenclature, the first word denotes the genus (capitalized) and the second word denotes the specific epithet (lowercase). Therefore statement (4) is incorrect.

  16. Question 16 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q105)

    EcosystemBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. Option B: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Decomposition → breakdown of organic matter; Detritus → dead remains; Mineralisation → release of inorganic nutrients; Humification → accumulation of dark humus. Hence A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I. Therefore option (B) is correct.

  17. Question 17 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q106)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?
    1. Option A: Centrosome
    2. Option B: Chromatin
    3. Option C: Nucleolus
    4. Option D: Kinetochore
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Nucleolus

    Explanation

    The nucleolus is the site of active ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and ribosome assembly in eukaryotic cells.

  18. Question 18 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q107)

    Photosynthesis in Higher PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    2(C₅₁H₉₈C₆) + 145 O₂ → 102 CO₂ + 98 H₂O + energy The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation would be:
    1. Option A: Between 0.5 and 0.95
    2. Option B: Less than 0.5
    3. Option C: 1.0
    4. Option D: Between 1.25 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Between 0.5 and 0.95

    Explanation

    Respiratory Quotient (RQ) = Volume of CO₂ evolved / Volume of O₂ consumed. For the given reaction: RQ = 102/145 = 0.70 Since 0.70 lies between 0.5 and 0.95, option (A) is correct. Such RQ values are characteristic of fats.

  19. Question 19 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q108)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    2. Option B: A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. Option D: A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Explanation

    Inheritance of flower colour in snapdragon (Antirrhinum sp.) shows incomplete dominance. ABO blood groups are examples of codominance because IA and IB express together in AB individuals. Phenylketonuria is an example of pleiotropy since one gene affects multiple phenotypic traits. Human skin colour is controlled by multiple genes, making it a case of polygenic inheritance.

  20. Question 20 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q109)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence. A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases. B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe. C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes. D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A, B, D, C, E
    2. Option B: A, D, B, E, C
    3. Option C: A, E, C, B, D
    4. Option D: A, E, B, C, D
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A, E, C, B, D

    Explanation

    The sequence of DNA fingerprinting steps is: DNA isolation and restriction digestion → electrophoresis → transfer to membrane (Southern blotting) → hybridisation with labelled VNTR probe → autoradiography detection.

  21. Question 21 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q110)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix? A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins. C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine. D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A, C and E only
    2. Option B: B, D and E only
    3. Option C: C, D and E only
    4. Option D: A, B and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A, C and E only

    Explanation

    Histones form an octamer (2 each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histones are positively charged proteins rich in lysine and arginine. DNA is negatively charged and wraps around histone octamers. Higher-order chromatin packaging requires non-histone chromosomal proteins.

  22. Question 22 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q111)

    Photosynthesis in Higher PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following: A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C4_4 plants use the C3_3 pathway of CO2_2 fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway. C. In C4_4 plants, photorespiration does not occur. D. C3_3 plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy. E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis. Choose the answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: B and C only
    2. Option B: B only
    3. Option C: B and E only
    4. Option D: A and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A and D only

    Explanation

    The water splitting complex is associated with PS II, not PS I, making statement A incorrect. Kranz anatomy is found in C4 plants, not C3 plants, making statement D incorrect. Statements B, C and E are correct.

  23. Question 23 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q112)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridisation in a correct sequence. A. Digestion of cell walls. B. Isolation of naked protoplasts. C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast. D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants. E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: D, A, B, C, E
    2. Option B: E, B, A, D, C
    3. Option C: D, B, A, E, C
    4. Option D: E, A, B, C, D
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) D, A, B, C, E

    Explanation

    Somatic hybridization proceeds as: isolation of single cells → digestion of cell walls → isolation of protoplasts → fusion to form hybrid protoplast → regeneration into a new plant.

  24. Question 24 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q113)

    Anatomy of Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. Option B: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. Option D: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Conjunctive tissue lies between xylem and phloem. Casparian strips are suberin deposits in endodermal cells. Subsidiary cells occur adjacent to guard cells. Starch sheath refers to endodermal cells rich in starch.

  25. Question 25 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q114)

    Plant Growth and DevelopmentBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?
    1. Option A: New cell wall deposition
    2. Option B: Cell enlargement
    3. Option C: Increased vacuolation
    4. Option D: Large conspicuous nuclei
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Large conspicuous nuclei

    Explanation

    Elongation phase is characterized by cell enlargement, vacuolation and new cell wall deposition. Large conspicuous nuclei are features of meristematic cells.

  26. Question 26 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q115)

    Plant Growth and DevelopmentBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. Option D: A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    2,4-D acts as a herbicide. GA3 is used in the brewing industry. Kinetin promotes nutrient mobilisation. ABA induces stomatal closure.

  27. Question 27 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q116)

    Photosynthesis in Higher PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is
    1. Option A: Hexokinase
    2. Option B: PEP carboxylase
    3. Option C: RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase
    4. Option D: Carboxypeptidase
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase

    Explanation

    RuBisCO (RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase) catalyses the carboxylation of RuBP during the Calvin cycle.

  28. Question 28 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q117)

    Photosynthesis in Higher PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?
    1. Option A: 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
    2. Option B: 12 ATP and 18 NADPH
    3. Option C: 24 ATP and 18 NADPH
    4. Option D: 6 ATP and 12 NADPH
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

    Explanation

    Fixation of one CO₂ molecule in the Calvin cycle requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH. Therefore, synthesis of one glucose molecule (6 CO₂) requires 18 ATP and 12 NADPH.

  29. Question 29 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q118)

    Morphology of Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of Solanaceae family?
    1. Option A: Option 1
    2. Option B: Option 2
    3. Option C: Option 3
    4. Option D: Option 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Option 2

    Explanation

    The floral formula of Solanaceae is ⊕ ⚥ K(5) C(5) A5 G̲(2), showing actinomorphic, bisexual flowers with fused sepals and petals, five stamens and a superior bicarpellary ovary.

  30. Question 30 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q119)

    Biodiversity and ConservationBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which of the following is an in situ conservation method?
    1. Option A: Sacred Groves
    2. Option B: Wildlife Safari Parks
    3. Option C: Botanical Gardens
    4. Option D: Seed Banks
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Sacred Groves

    Explanation

    In situ conservation protects species within their natural habitat. Sacred groves are examples of in situ conservation, whereas botanical gardens and seed banks are ex situ methods.

  31. Question 31 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q120)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.
    1. Option A: A and B only
    2. Option B: A and E only
    3. Option C: D and E only
    4. Option D: C and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) C and D only

    Explanation

    Restriction endonucleases recognize specific palindromic sequences and act as molecular scissors. They do not necessarily cut at the exact center of palindromes, and removal of nucleotides from DNA ends is performed by exonucleases, not restriction endonucleases.

  32. Question 32 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q121)

    Morphology of Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In racemose inflorescence, ________.
    1. Option A: The main axis terminates in a flower
    2. Option B: Flowers are solitary
    3. Option C: The growth is limited
    4. Option D: Flowers are borne in an acropetal succession
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Flowers are borne in an acropetal succession

    Explanation

    In racemose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow and flowers are arranged in acropetal succession, with younger flowers toward the apex.

  33. Question 33 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q122)

    Sexual Reproduction in Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis: A. Microspore tetrads B. Sporogenous tissue C. Pollen grains D. Pollen mother cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: D, A, C, B
    2. Option B: B, D, A, C
    3. Option C: B, D, C, A
    4. Option D: A, D, C, B
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

    Development during microsporogenesis proceeds as: Sporogenous tissue → Pollen mother cells → Microspore tetrads → Pollen grains.

  34. Question 34 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q123)

    BiomoleculesBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Identify the correct statements about biomolecules. A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: B, D and E only
    2. Option B: B, C and E only
    3. Option C: A, B and C only
    4. Option D: C, D and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Proteins are polypeptides, polysaccharides are polymers of sugars, and most enzymes are proteins. Lipids are generally water insoluble, and adenine and guanine are purines, not pyrimidines.

  35. Question 35 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q124)

    Organisms and PopulationsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A, B, C and E only
    2. Option B: B, C, D and E only
    3. Option C: A, B, C and D only
    4. Option D: A, B, D and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A, B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Honeybees exhibit haplodiploid sex determination. Fertilized eggs develop into diploid females, while unfertilized eggs develop into haploid males by parthenogenesis. Male bees produce sperms by mitosis, not meiosis.

  36. Question 36 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q125)

    Plant Growth and DevelopmentBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?
    1. Option A: Redifferentiation
    2. Option B: Elasticity
    3. Option C: Dedifferentiation
    4. Option D: Plasticity
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Plasticity

    Explanation

    Plasticity is the ability of plants to alter growth patterns or structures in response to environmental conditions or developmental phases. Heterophylly is an example of plasticity.

  37. Question 37 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q126)

    BiomoleculesBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: C and D only
    2. Option B: B and C only
    3. Option C: A and C only
    4. Option D: A and B only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A and C only

    Explanation

    Amino acids are substituted methanes. Valine is a neutral amino acid. Serine is a hydroxy amino acid, not aromatic, and lysine is a basic amino acid, not acidic.

  38. Question 38 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q127)

    Biodiversity and ConservationBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    ‘The Evil Quartet’ of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?
    1. Option A: Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Air pollution; Co-extinctions
    2. Option B: Habitat loss and fragmentation; Air pollution; Water pollution; Co-extinctions
    3. Option C: Habitat loss and fragmentation; Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Co-extinctions
    4. Option D: Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Soil pollution; Co-extinctions
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Habitat loss and fragmentation; Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Co-extinctions

    Explanation

    The ‘Evil Quartet’ responsible for biodiversity loss consists of habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, alien species invasions and co-extinctions.

  39. Question 39 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q128)

    Respiration in PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    2. Option B: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. Option C: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. Option D: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm, ETS is located on the inner mitochondrial membrane, proton accumulation occurs in the intermembrane space and Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.

  40. Question 40 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q129)

    Sexual Reproduction in Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which one of the following is a triploid cell?
    1. Option A: Synergid
    2. Option B: Central cell
    3. Option C: Zygote
    4. Option D: Primary endosperm cell
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Primary endosperm cell

    Explanation

    The primary endosperm cell is triploid (3n), formed after fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei during triple fusion.

  41. Question 41 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q130)

    Sexual Reproduction in Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?
    1. Option A: Autogamy
    2. Option B: Xenogamy
    3. Option C: Geitonogamy
    4. Option D: Cleistogamy
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Xenogamy

    Explanation

    Xenogamy involves transfer of pollen between different plants of the same species and introduces genetically different pollen grains.

  42. Question 42 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q131)

    Morphology of Flowering PlantsBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    2. Option B: A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. Option D: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Marginal placentation occurs in pea, axile placentation in lemon, parietal placentation in mustard and basal placentation in marigold.

  43. Question 43 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q132)

    Biological ClassificationBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969) included: A. Cell structure B. Body organization C. Presence of flagellum D. Reproduction E. Phylogenetic relationships Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A, B, C, D and E
    2. Option B: B, C and D only
    3. Option C: A, B, D and E only
    4. Option D: A, B and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

    Whittaker’s five kingdom classification was based on cell structure, body organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationships. Presence of flagellum was not a criterion.

  44. Question 44 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q133)

    BiomoleculesBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. Option B: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Trypsin is an enzyme, morphine is an alkaloid, Concanavalin A is a lectin and collagen forms intercellular ground substance.

  45. Question 45 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q134)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesBotany3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: B and D only
    2. Option B: A and B only
    3. Option C: B and C only
    4. Option D: A and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A and B only

    Explanation

    Restriction enzymes (molecular scissors) cut DNA, and agarose gel electrophoresis separates fragments based on size. DNA fragments require staining with ethidium bromide and visualization under UV light; they cannot be seen directly or under visible light.

  46. Question 46 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q135)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotany3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule?
    1. Option A: Thalassemia
    2. Option B: Sickle-cell anaemia
    3. Option C: Phenylketonuria
    4. Option D: Haemophilia
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Sickle-cell anaemia

    Explanation

    Sickle-cell anaemia results from a point mutation in the β-globin gene, causing substitution of glutamic acid by valine at the sixth position of the β-chain of haemoglobin.

  47. Question 47 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q136)

    Chemical Coordination and IntegrationZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    3. Option C: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. Option D: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Cortisol has anti-inflammatory effects. Aldosterone promotes Na⁺ and water reabsorption. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and bile release. Progesterone promotes alveolar development in mammary glands.

  48. Question 48 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q137)

    Excretory Products and Their EliminationZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Arrange the following events occurring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order: A. Increase in blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate B. Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone C. Fall in glomerular filtration rate D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, C, E, B, D
    2. Option B: C, A, B, D, E
    3. Option C: A, D, B, E, C
    4. Option D: C, E, D, B, A
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) C, E, D, B, A

    Explanation

    A fall in GFR stimulates renin release → Angiotensinogen converts to Angiotensin II → vasoconstriction and aldosterone release → Na⁺ and water reabsorption increase → blood pressure and GFR rise.

  49. Question 49 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q138)

    Breathing and Exchange of GasesZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order: A. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues B. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ across alveolar membrane C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO₂ rich alveolar air is released out D. Cellular respiration E. Transport of gases by the blood Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, B, C, D, E
    2. Option B: E, A, C, D, B
    3. Option C: C, B, E, A, D
    4. Option D: C, A, B, E, D
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) C, B, E, A, D

    Explanation

    Respiration occurs in the sequence: pulmonary ventilation → diffusion across alveolar membrane → transport by blood → diffusion between blood and tissues → cellular respiration.

  50. Question 50 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q139)

    Human Health and DiseaseZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order: A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells. B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood. C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs. D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood. E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: E, D, B, A, C
    2. Option B: A, B, C, D, E
    3. Option C: C, A, B, D, E
    4. Option D: E, C, D, B, A
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) E, D, B, A, C

    Explanation

    Plasmodium enters as sporozoites → reaches liver → multiplies in liver cells → infects RBCs and multiplies → gametocytes form in RBCs.

  51. Question 51 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q140)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:
    1. Option A: Ampicillin and tetracycline
    2. Option B: Ampicillin
    3. Option C: Tetracycline
    4. Option D: Gentamycin
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Tetracycline

    Explanation

    The BamHI restriction site lies within the tetracycline resistance gene of pBR322. Insertional inactivation at this site causes loss of tetracycline resistance.

  52. Question 52 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q141)

    BiomoleculesZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes: Identify the enzyme class 'E' from the following options:
    1. Option A: Transferases
    2. Option B: Isomerases
    3. Option C: Lyases
    4. Option D: Ligases
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Lyases

    Explanation

    Lyases catalyse removal of groups from substrates without hydrolysis, often resulting in formation of double bonds.

  53. Question 53 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q142)

    Neural Control and CoordinationZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on ________.
    1. Option A: Schwann cell
    2. Option B: Pre-synaptic membrane
    3. Option C: Myelin sheath
    4. Option D: Post-synaptic membrane
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Post-synaptic membrane

    Explanation

    Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the post-synaptic membrane, where they receive chemical signals from the synaptic cleft.

  54. Question 54 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q143)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood groups, respectively?
    1. Option A: 25%
    2. Option B: 0%
    3. Option C: 75%
    4. Option D: 50%
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 25%

    Explanation

    Crossing Iᴬi × Iᴮi produces offspring: AB, A, B and O in equal proportions. Thus probability of O blood group (ii) is 25%.

  55. Question 55 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q144)

    Breathing and Exchange of GasesZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. Option B: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    3. Option C: A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    4. Option D: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    ERV = 1000–1100 mL, RV = 1100–1200 mL, IRV = 2500–3000 mL and TV = 500 mL.

  56. Question 56 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q145)

    EvolutionZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?
    1. Option A: Flippers of penguins and dolphins
    2. Option B: Eyes of octopuses and mammals
    3. Option C: Fore limbs of whales and bats
    4. Option D: Wings of butterflies and birds
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Fore limbs of whales and bats

    Explanation

    Forelimbs of whales and bats are homologous structures showing divergent evolution, not convergent evolution.

  57. Question 57 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q146)

    Locomotion and MovementZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of: A. Bulging eyes B. Vocal sacs C. Webbed digits in feet D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots Choose the correct answer from the options given below
    1. Option A: B and C only
    2. Option B: C and E only
    3. Option C: A and B only
    4. Option D: B and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    Male frogs possess vocal sacs and copulatory (nuptial) pads on the first digit of forelimbs, which help during mating.

  58. Question 58 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q147)

    Animal KingdomZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    A group of researchers procured some fish-like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; attached to fish skin with circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present. Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?
    1. Option A: Scoliodon sp.
    2. Option B: Petromyzon sp.
    3. Option C: Exocoetus sp.
    4. Option D: Branchiostoma sp.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Petromyzon sp.

    Explanation

    Petromyzon (lamprey) belongs to Cyclostomata and has a cartilaginous endoskeleton, circular sucking mouth, ectoparasitic habit, absence of paired fins and scales, and multiple gill slits.

  59. Question 59 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q148)

    EvolutionZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A(III), B(IV), C(I), D(II)
    2. Option B: A(I), B(II), C(III), D(IV)
    3. Option C: A(II), B(IV), C(III), D(I)
    4. Option D: A(II), B(IV), C(I), D(III)
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A(II), B(IV), C(I), D(III)

    Explanation

    65 mya → dinosaurs disappeared; 500 mya → invertebrates became active; 350 mya → jawless fishes evolved; 320 mya → seaweeds and early plants existed.

  60. Question 60 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q149)

    Reproductive HealthZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A(III), B(IV), C(I), D(II)
    2. Option B: A(IV), B(II), C(I), D(III)
    3. Option C: A(IV), B(III), C(I), D(II)
    4. Option D: A(III), B(IV), C(II), D(I)
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A(III), B(IV), C(I), D(II)

    Explanation

    Progestasert is a hormone-releasing IUD, Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD, diaphragm is a female barrier contraceptive and Saheli is an oral contraceptive.

  61. Question 61 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q150)

    Body Fluids and CirculationZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately?
    1. Option A: 300 – 500/cu mm and 1200 – 1500/cu mm respectively
    2. Option B: 160 – 240/cu mm and 1600 – 2000/cu mm respectively
    3. Option C: 300 – 500/cu mm and 500 – 700/cu mm respectively
    4. Option D: 100 – 120/cu mm and 160 – 200/cu mm respectively
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) 160 – 240/cu mm and 1600 – 2000/cu mm respectively

    Explanation

    Eosinophils constitute ~2–3% of WBCs → 160–240/cu mm. Lymphocytes constitute ~20–25% → 1600–2000/cu mm out of 8000/cu mm total WBC count.

  62. Question 62 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q151)

    Human Health and DiseaseZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    2. Option B: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. Option D: A-III, B-I, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Nicotine stimulates adrenal release of catecholamines; morphine acts as a sedative and analgesic; heroin is a depressant; cocaine induces euphoria and increased energy.

  63. Question 63 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q152)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The human protein named α-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ______.
    1. Option A: Emphysema
    2. Option B: Alzheimer’s disease
    3. Option C: Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. Option D: Cystic fibrosis
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Emphysema

    Explanation

    α-1-antitrypsin produced using transgenic animals is used in treatment of emphysema caused by deficiency of this protein.

  64. Question 64 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q153)

    Animal KingdomZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes.
    1. Option A: Devil fish, Cuttlefish and Hagfish
    2. Option B: Saw fish, Fighting fish and Dog fish
    3. Option C: Starfish, Hagfish and Cuttlefish
    4. Option D: Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish

    Explanation

    Flying fish (Exocoetus), Angel fish (Pterophyllum) and Fighting fish (Betta) belong to Osteichthyes (bony fishes).

  65. Question 65 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q154)

    Animal KingdomZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Select the incorrect statements from the following: A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete. B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms. C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes. D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in class Chondrichthyes. E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature. Choose the answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A and C only
    2. Option B: B and E only
    3. Option C: C and D only
    4. Option D: B and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) B and E only

    Explanation

    Adult echinoderms exhibit radial symmetry, not bilateral symmetry. Reptiles are ectothermic and do not maintain constant body temperature. Statements B and E are incorrect.

  66. Question 66 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q155)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are ______.
    1. Option A: Ribosomes
    2. Option B: Lysosomes
    3. Option C: Centrosomes
    4. Option D: Mitochondria
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Ribosomes

    Explanation

    Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, where they function in protein synthesis.

  67. Question 67 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q156)

    Organisms and PopulationsZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?
    1. Option A: Equation 1
    2. Option B: Equation 2
    3. Option C: Equation 3
    4. Option D: Equation 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Equation 2

    Explanation

    The Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation is dN/dt = rN((K−N)/K), where K is carrying capacity, r is intrinsic growth rate and N is population size.

  68. Question 68 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q157)

    Body Fluids and CirculationZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping: A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh⁻ᵛᵉ blood and mother with Rh⁺ᵛᵉ blood. B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings. C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched. D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is Rh⁻ᵛᵉ and the foetus is Rh⁺ᵛᵉ. E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.
    1. Option A: C and D only
    2. Option B: A and B only
    3. Option C: A and E only
    4. Option D: B and C only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A and E only

    Explanation

    Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when an Rh− mother carries an Rh+ fetus, not vice versa. Anti-Rh antibodies are administered after the first Rh+ childbirth, not after the second child.

  69. Question 69 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q158)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    4. Option D: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Streptokinase acts as a clot buster, statins lower blood cholesterol, lipases are used in detergents and Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive agent.

  70. Question 70 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q159)

    Animal KingdomZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below
    1. Option A: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. Option B: A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    3. Option C: A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Molluscs mainly show branchial respiration, reptiles use pulmonary respiration, adult amphibians use pulmonary and cutaneous respiration and Amoeba performs cellular respiration.

  71. Question 71 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q160)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.
    1. Option A: GUG
    2. Option B: AUG
    3. Option C: GAG
    4. Option D: CAG
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) GUG

    Explanation

    In sickle-cell anaemia, mutation in the β-globin gene changes the codon from GAG (glutamic acid) to GUG (valine), leading to HbS formation and RBC sickling.

  72. Question 72 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q161)

    Locomotion and MovementZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction: A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca⁺⁺ into sarcoplasm. C. Increase in Ca⁺⁺ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges. D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge. E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: C and D only
    2. Option B: A and B only
    3. Option C: C and E only
    4. Option D: A, B, D and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

    Motor neuron signals trigger Ca²⁺ release, enabling actin-myosin cross-bridge formation and sliding of actin filaments toward the centre of the A band. Statement C is incorrect because Ca²⁺ binds troponin rather than directly activating actin to break cross bridges.

  73. Question 73 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q162)

    Locomotion and MovementZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? A. Human skull is monocondylic. B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint. C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven. D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic. E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: B and E only
    2. Option B: B, C and E only
    3. Option C: C, D and E only
    4. Option D: A, B and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Humans have 7 cervical vertebrae. Adjacent vertebrae are connected by cartilaginous joints, and the occipital bone articulates with the atlas. Human skull is dicondylic, and all ribs except the last two pairs are bicephalic.

  74. Question 74 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q163)

    Human ReproductionZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements: A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division. B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes. C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids. D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis. E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A and E only
    2. Option B: C and E only
    3. Option C: A, C and E only
    4. Option D: B, C and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) C and E only

    Explanation

    Secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II to form haploid spermatids, and spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.

  75. Question 75 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q164)

    Excretory Products and Their EliminationZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in ______ related to the same nephron.
    1. Option A: Distal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole
    2. Option B: Proximal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole
    3. Option C: Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole
    4. Option D: Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole

    Explanation

    JGA is formed by specialized cells of the distal convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole, helping regulate GFR and blood pressure.

  76. Question 76 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q165)

    Organisms and PopulationsZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?
    1. Option A: Female wasp and fig
    2. Option B: Ophrys and bumblebee
    3. Option C: Sea anemone and clown fish
    4. Option D: Cuckoo and crow
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Ophrys and bumblebee

    Explanation

    Ophrys orchids mimic female insects to attract male pollinators, an example of sexual deceit.

  77. Question 77 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q166)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Choose the correct statements regarding frog’s anatomy: A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine. B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs. D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes. E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, B and C only
    2. Option B: B and D only
    3. Option C: B and C only
    4. Option D: A, C and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A, C and E only

    Explanation

    Frogs have 10 pairs of cranial nerves, optic lobes belong to midbrain, and sinus venosus opens into the right atrium. Thus A, C and E are correct.

  78. Question 78 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q167)

    Human ReproductionZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    2. Option B: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. Option C: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    4. Option D: A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    8 weeks → limbs and digits develop; 12 weeks → external genital organs develop; 20 weeks → foetal movements and hair appear; 24 weeks → body covered with fine hair and eyelashes form.

  79. Question 79 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q168)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In a population of grasshopper species, chromosome number of some members is 23 and some others possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ______.
    1. Option A: females and males, respectively
    2. Option B: all males
    3. Option C: males and females, respectively
    4. Option D: all females
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) males and females, respectively

    Explanation

    Grasshoppers exhibit XO sex determination. Males (XO) possess one fewer chromosome (23), while females (XX) have 24 chromosomes.

  80. Question 80 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q169)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?
    1. Option A: Male honeybees
    2. Option B: Male earthworms
    3. Option C: Male frogs
    4. Option D: Male grasshoppers
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Male honeybees

    Explanation

    Male honeybees are haploid and produce gametes through mitosis because of haplodiploid sex determination.

  81. Question 81 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q170)

    Human ReproductionZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete from outer to inner side: A. Zona pellucida B. Perivitelline space C. Corona radiata D. Plasma membrane of ovum Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: D, B, A, C
    2. Option B: C, A, D, B
    3. Option C: C, A, B, D
    4. Option D: A, C, B, D
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) C, A, B, D

    Explanation

    The arrangement from outside to inside is: Corona radiata → Zona pellucida → Perivitelline space → Plasma membrane of ovum.

  82. Question 82 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q171)

    Microbes in Human WelfareZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    What is the reason behind production of large holes in Swiss cheese?
    1. Option A: Production of large amount of CO₂ by Propionibacterium sharmanii
    2. Option B: Production of large amount of CO₂ by Clostridium butylicum
    3. Option C: Production of large amount of CO₂ and H₂ by lactic acid bacteria called Lactobacillus
    4. Option D: Production of large amount of CO₂ and H₂ by Trichoderma polysporum
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Production of large amount of CO₂ by Propionibacterium sharmanii

    Explanation

    Large holes in Swiss cheese are produced due to CO₂ released by Propionibacterium sharmanii during fermentation.

  83. Question 83 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q172)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which genes control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively?
    1. Option A: cryIAc and cryIAb
    2. Option B: cryIAc and cryIIAb
    3. Option C: cryIIAb and cryIAc
    4. Option D: cryIAc and cryIIIAb
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) cryIAc and cryIAb

    Explanation

    The Bt toxin genes cryIAc and cryIIAb are used against cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively.

  84. Question 84 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q173)

    EcosystemZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:
    1. Option A: Pyramid of number in grassland
    2. Option B: Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem
    3. Option C: Pyramid of biomass in grassland
    4. Option D: Pyramid of biomass in sea
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Pyramid of biomass in sea

    Explanation

    Pyramid of biomass is inverted in aquatic ecosystems such as seas because phytoplankton biomass is lower than consumer biomass at a given time.

  85. Question 85 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q174)

    Reproductive HealthZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.
    1. Option A: Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.
    2. Option B: Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.
    3. Option C: Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube of an infertile female.
    4. Option D: It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable envoronment for fertilization and development.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable envoronment for fertilization and development.

    Explanation

    GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) involves transfer of donor ovum into the fallopian tube of a female who cannot produce ova but can support fertilization and development.

  86. Question 86 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q175)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions: A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA. D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A and B only
    2. Option B: A, B and C only
    3. Option C: C, D and E only
    4. Option D: B, C and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) B, C and D only

    Explanation

    RER bears ribosomes, mitochondria and plastids contain circular DNA, and cytoskeleton consists of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments. Mitochondria are not part of the endomembrane system and are double membrane-bound.

  87. Question 87 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q176)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cells: A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein. B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. C. Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium. E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: C, D and E only
    2. Option B: B, C and E only
    3. Option C: A, B and D only
    4. Option D: A, C and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Human RBC membranes contain ~52% proteins, phospholipids form a bilayer, and hydrophobic tails face inward. Mesosomes occur in prokaryotes, not eukaryotes.

  88. Question 88 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q177)

    Locomotion and MovementZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Match List I with List II related to muscular/skeletal system: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    2. Option B: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    Tetany is caused by low Ca²⁺ leading to muscle spasms; arthritis is inflammation of joints; myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junctions; muscular dystrophy involves progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles.

  89. Question 89 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q178)

    EvolutionZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is:
    1. Option A: Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens
    2. Option B: Homo sapiens → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Neanderthal → Homo erectus
    3. Option C: Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Ramapithecus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens
    4. Option D: Neanderthal → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens

    Explanation

    Human evolution progressed as: Ramapithecus → Australopithecines → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthals → Homo sapiens.

  90. Question 90 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q179)

    Animal KingdomZoology3 May (cancelled)Easy
    The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:
    1. Option A: Struthio
    2. Option B: Neophron
    3. Option C: Aptenodytes
    4. Option D: Psittacula
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Aptenodytes

    Explanation

    Aptenodytes (penguin) is a flightless bird whose forelimbs are modified into flippers for swimming.

  91. Question 91 (NEET 2026 3 May paper (cancelled), Q180)

    Organisms and PopulationsZoology3 May (cancelled)Medium
    Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species: A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. B. Both species benefit in mutualism. C. Both species benefit in commensalism. D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.
    1. Option A: B and E only
    2. Option B: A and B only
    3. Option C: B, D and E only
    4. Option D: A and D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) B, D and E only

    Explanation

    Mutualism benefits both species; parasitism benefits one and harms the other; amensalism harms one species while the other remains unaffected.

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