NEET 2025 · Biology

NEET 2025 Biology Questions with Solutions

The NEET 2025 paper had 90 Biology questions from 21 chapters. By section: 49 Botany and 41 Zoology.

Structural Organisation in Animals and The Living World had the most questions (9 each), followed by Cell: The Unit of Life with 7.

Every question below has its answer and a step-by-step explanation.

Biology questions
90
Chapters covered
21
Solved free here
90 of 90
Easy / Medium / Hard
36 / 50 / 4

Difficulty is NEET MIND's own tag for each question.

Chapter-wise: NEET 2025 Biology

How many questions each chapter had in NEET 2025. Open a chapter for its questions from every year.

  1. Structural Organisation in Animals· Zoology9 Qs
  2. The Living World· Botany9 Qs
  3. Cell: The Unit of Life· Botany7 Qs
  4. Biomolecules· Zoology6 Qs
  5. Molecular Basis of Inheritance· Botany6 Qs
  6. Principles of Inheritance and Variation· Botany6 Qs
  7. Biotechnology and Its Applications· Zoology5 Qs
  8. Ecosystem· Botany5 Qs
  9. Human Reproduction· Zoology5 Qs
  10. Microbes in Human Welfare· Botany5 Qs
  11. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes· Zoology4 Qs
  12. Chemical Coordination and Integration· Zoology4 Qs
  13. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants· Botany4 Qs
  14. Body Fluids and Circulation· Zoology3 Qs
  15. Human Health and Disease· Zoology3 Qs
  16. Organisms and Populations· Botany2 Qs
  17. Photosynthesis in Higher Plants· Botany2 Qs
  18. Plant Growth and Development· Botany2 Qs
  19. Biodiversity and Conservation· Botany1 Q
  20. Excretory Products and Their Elimination· Zoology1 Q
  21. Reproductive Health· Zoology1 Q

All 90 NEET 2025 Biology questions

In paper order. Try each one, then open the answer where it is shown.

  1. Question 1 (NEET 2025, Q69)

    BiomoleculesZoologyEasy
    Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. Option C: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. Option D: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency causes pernicious anaemia, Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets, Vitamin B₂ deficiency causes cheilosis, and Vitamin B₆ deficiency can cause convulsions. Hence the correct matching is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

  2. Question 2 (NEET 2025, Q91)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotanyEasy
    The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
    1. Option A: Cytochrome bc1_1
    2. Option B: Succinate dehydrogenase
    3. Option C: Cytochrome c oxidase
    4. Option D: NADH dehydrogenase
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Succinate dehydrogenase

    Explanation

    Complex II of the mitochondrial electron transport chain is succinate dehydrogenase. It participates in both the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain.

  3. Question 3 (NEET 2025, Q92)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesZoologyEasy
    Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
    1. Option A: N²
    2. Option B: 2ⁿ
    3. Option C: 2n + 1
    4. Option D: 2N²
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) 2ⁿ

    Explanation

    In PCR, the DNA doubles after every cycle. Therefore, after n cycles, amplification follows the expression 2ⁿ.

  4. Question 4 (NEET 2025, Q93)

    Reproductive HealthZoologyMedium
    What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method? A. High fatality risk to mother B. Expensive instruments and reagents C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors D. Less adoption of orphans E. Not available in India F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: B, D, F only
    2. Option B: A, C, D, F only
    3. Option C: A, B, C, D only
    4. Option D: A, B, C, E, F only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) B, D, F only

    Explanation

    IVF requires expensive instruments and reagents, may reduce adoption of orphans, and the embryo may fail to survive during early development. High fatality risk and non-availability in India are incorrect statements.

  5. Question 5 (NEET 2025, Q94)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyEasy
    What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
    1. Option A: Aorta
    2. Option B: Pulmonary artery
    3. Option C: Pulmonary vein
    4. Option D: Vena cava
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Vena cava

    Explanation

    In frogs, deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the heart through the vena cava.

  6. Question 6 (NEET 2025, Q95)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotanyEasy
    Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?
    1. Option A: Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
    2. Option B: Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
    3. Option C: Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
    4. Option D: Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

    Explanation

    Reductionist biology explains biological phenomena through physical and chemical principles.

  7. Question 7 (NEET 2025, Q96)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements: Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repair mechanism. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: Both statement I and statement II are correct
    2. Option B: Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
    3. Option C: Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
    4. Option D: Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct

    Explanation

    RNA is believed to be the first genetic material and is chemically reactive. DNA evolved later as a more stable genetic material with repair mechanisms.

  8. Question 8 (NEET 2025, Q97)

    EcosystemBotanyEasy
    Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
    1. Option A: Commensalism
    2. Option B: Mutualism
    3. Option C: Predation
    4. Option D: Amensalism
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Commensalism

    Explanation

    In commensalism, one organism benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited. Epiphytes gain support from the mango tree without affecting it.

  9. Question 9 (NEET 2025, Q98)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotanyMedium
    From the statements given below choose the correct option: A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
    1. Option A: A, B, C are true
    2. Option B: A, B, D are true
    3. Option C: A, B, E are true
    4. Option D: B, D, E are true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A, B, C are true

    Explanation

    Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S (60S + 40S) and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S (50S + 30S). Ribosomes consist of two subunits.

  10. Question 10 (NEET 2025, Q99)

    EcosystemBotanyEasy
    Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
    1. Option A: National Park
    2. Option B: Wildlife Sanctuary
    3. Option C: Zoos and botanical gardens
    4. Option D: Protected areas
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Zoos and botanical gardens

    Explanation

    Ex-situ conservation involves conservation of organisms outside their natural habitat. Zoos and botanical gardens are examples of ex-situ conservation.

  11. Question 11 (NEET 2025, Q100)

    EcosystemBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both statement I and statement II are correct
    2. Option B: Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
    3. Option C: Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
    4. Option D: Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Solar energy is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem, so Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because the total rate of organic matter production during photosynthesis is called Gross Primary Productivity (GPP), not Net Primary Productivity (NPP).

  12. Question 12 (NEET 2025, Q101)

    Body Fluids and CirculationZoologyMedium
    Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    2. Option B: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    4. Option D: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Emphysema is associated with damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface. Angina pectoris refers to chest pain due to insufficient oxygen supply to heart muscles. Glomerulo-nephritis is inflammation of glomeruli of kidney. Tetany involves rapid muscle spasms due to low calcium levels.

  13. Question 13 (NEET 2025, Q102)

    Sexual Reproduction in Flowering PlantsBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Option B: Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. Option C: A is true but R is false
    4. Option D: A is false but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Wind and water pollinated flowers are generally not colourful and do not produce nectar because they do not require animal attraction. They also produce enormous amounts of pollen grains to ensure successful pollination. However, the large production of pollen is not the direct reason for lack of colour and nectar.

  14. Question 14 (NEET 2025, Q103)

    Microbes in Human WelfareBotanyEasy
    Which one of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
    1. Option A: Whisky
    2. Option B: Brandy
    3. Option C: Beer
    4. Option D: Rum
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Beer

    Explanation

    Beer is a non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast fermentation. Whisky, brandy, and rum are distilled alcoholic beverages.

  15. Question 15 (NEET 2025, Q104)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyMedium
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary. Statement II : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. Option B: Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. Option C: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. Option D: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

    In floral formula, ⊕ represents actinomorphic symmetry, not zygomorphic symmetry. G with a line below indicates superior ovary. Hence Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

  16. Question 16 (NEET 2025, Q105)

    Microbes in Human WelfareBotanyEasy
    Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
    1. Option A: Curd production
    2. Option B: Ethanol production
    3. Option C: Liver disease treatment
    4. Option D: Removing clots from blood vessels
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Removing clots from blood vessels

    Explanation

    Streptokinase produced by Streptococcus is used as a clot buster for removing blood clots from blood vessels.

  17. Question 17 (NEET 2025, Q106)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotanyMedium
    Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
    1. Option A: Chromosome X
    2. Option B: Chromosome Y
    3. Option C: Chromosome 1
    4. Option D: Chromosome 10
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Chromosome 1

    Explanation

    Chromosome 1 has the highest number of genes in the human genome.

  18. Question 18 (NEET 2025, Q107)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyMedium
    Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
    1. Option A: First and Second digit of fore limb
    2. Option B: First digit of hind limb
    3. Option C: Second digit of fore limb
    4. Option D: First digit of the fore limb
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) First digit of the fore limb

    Explanation

    In male frogs, copulatory pads are present on the first digit of the forelimbs and help in holding the female during amplexus.

  19. Question 19 (NEET 2025, Q108)

    Plant Growth and DevelopmentBotanyEasy
    Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
    1. Option A: Ethylene
    2. Option B: Abscisic acid
    3. Option C: Gibberellin
    4. Option D: Cytokinin
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Cytokinin

    Explanation

    Cytokinins promote nutrient mobilization and delay leaf senescence in plants.

  20. Question 20 (NEET 2025, Q109)

    The Living WorldBotanyHard
    While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
    1. Option A: Acoelomate
    2. Option B: Pseudocoelomate
    3. Option C: Schizocoelomate
    4. Option D: Spongocoelomate
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Pseudocoelomate

    Explanation

    In pseudocoelomates, mesoderm lines the body wall but not the alimentary canal completely.

  21. Question 21 (NEET 2025, Q110)

    Human ReproductionZoologyMedium
    Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Head contains genetic material, middle piece provides energy through mitochondria, acrosome contains enzymes, and tail helps in sperm motility.

  22. Question 22 (NEET 2025, Q111)

    The Living WorldBotanyHard
    Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence. A. Prothallus stage B. Meiosis in spore mother cells C. Fertilisation D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: B, A, D, E, C
    2. Option B: B, A, E, C, D
    3. Option C: D, E, C, A, B
    4. Option D: E, D, C, B, A
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) B, A, D, E, C

    Explanation

    In pteridophytes, meiosis forms spores, spores develop into prothallus, gametophytes produce archegonia and antheridia, antherozoids transfer through water, and fertilisation occurs.

  23. Question 23 (NEET 2025, Q112)

    Body Fluids and CirculationZoologyMedium
    Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, B and C Only
    2. Option B: A, B, C and D
    3. Option C: A, C and D Only
    4. Option D: A, B and D Only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A, B and C Only

    Explanation

    Cardiac activity is regulated by nodal tissue, medulla oblongata, and adrenal medullary hormones. Adrenal cortical hormones are not directly involved.

  24. Question 24 (NEET 2025, Q113)

    Microbes in Human WelfareBotanyEasy
    Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena D. Volvox E. Nostoc Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A only
    2. Option B: D only
    3. Option C: B only
    4. Option D: E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) D only

    Explanation

    Volvox is a green alga and cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen. Azotobacter, Oscillatoria, Anabaena and Nostoc are associated with nitrogen fixation.

  25. Question 25 (NEET 2025, Q114)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoologyMedium
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. Option B: Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. Option C: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. Option D: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

    tRNA and rRNA interact with mRNA during translation, so Statement I is incorrect. RNA interference is a cellular defence mechanism found in eukaryotes, so Statement II is correct.

  26. Question 26 (NEET 2025, Q115)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesZoologyMedium
    In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
    1. Option A: Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate.
    2. Option B: Blue color colonies will be selected.
    3. Option C: White color colonies will be selected.
    4. Option D: Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) White color colonies will be selected.

    Explanation

    Insertion of foreign DNA at the EcoRI site within the β-galactosidase gene disrupts its function. Recombinant colonies cannot produce β-galactosidase and therefore appear white in blue-white screening.

  27. Question 27 (NEET 2025, Q116)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoologyEasy
    Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
    1. Option A: Bacterium
    2. Option B: Yeast
    3. Option C: Virus
    4. Option D: Phage
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Bacterium

    Explanation

    Eli Lilly used genetically engineered Escherichia coli bacteria to produce human insulin.

  28. Question 28 (NEET 2025, Q117)

    BiomoleculesZoologyMedium
    Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction : S − G + S# → S + S# − G Where, G → a group other than hydrogen S → a substrate S# → another substrate
    1. Option A: Hydrolase
    2. Option B: Lyase
    3. Option C: Transferase
    4. Option D: Ligase
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Transferase

    Explanation

    Transferases catalyze the transfer of a functional group from one substrate to another.

  29. Question 29 (NEET 2025, Q118)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyMedium
    Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
    1. Option A: Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
    2. Option B: Vascular bundles are scattered.
    3. Option C: Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
    4. Option D: Phloem parenchyma is absent.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.

    Explanation

    In monocot stems, the hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, not parenchymatous. The other statements are correct features of monocot stems.

  30. Question 30 (NEET 2025, Q119)

    The Living WorldBotanyMedium
    The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: D, E, A, C, B
    2. Option B: B, E, A, C, D
    3. Option C: B, E, A, D, C
    4. Option D: D, E, A, B, C
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) B, E, A, D, C

    Explanation

    Bryophyte life cycle proceeds as: attachment of gametophyte to substratum, release of antherozoids into water, fertilization, formation of sporophyte, and finally meiosis to produce haploid spores.

  31. Question 31 (NEET 2025, Q120)

    Microbes in Human WelfareBotanyMedium
    Which are correct: A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: B and D only
    2. Option B: D and E only
    3. Option C: C and D only
    4. Option D: A and C only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A and C only

    Explanation

    Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect cancers of internal organs. α-interferon activates the immune system and helps destroy tumours. Chemotherapeutic drugs target cancerous cells, not non-cancerous cells, and biological response modifiers are different from chemotherapeutic drugs. In leukaemia, blood cell counts are generally abnormally high, not decreased.

  32. Question 32 (NEET 2025, Q121)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotanyEasy
    Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. Option B: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. Option C: A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    4. Option D: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

    Centromere is associated with cell division, cilium helps in cell movement, cristae are structures present in mitochondria, and the cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer.

  33. Question 33 (NEET 2025, Q122)

    Photosynthesis in Higher PlantsBotanyEasy
    Match List I with List II : Choose the option with all correct matches.
    1. Option A: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. Option B: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    4. Option D: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    Chlorophyll a is blue-green, chlorophyll b is yellow-green, xanthophylls are yellow pigments, and carotenoids are yellow to yellow-orange pigments.

  34. Question 34 (NEET 2025, Q123)

    Human ReproductionZoologyMedium
    Find the correct statements : A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks. B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks. C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after the end of gestation. D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month. E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A and E Only
    2. Option B: B and C Only
    3. Option C: B, C, D and E Only
    4. Option D: A, C, D and E Only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A, C, D and E Only

    Explanation

    In human pregnancy, major organ systems are formed by the end of 12 weeks. Limbs and digits develop by the end of the second month, and appearance of hair is usually observed during the fifth month. Hence statements A, C, D and E are considered correct according to the answer key.

  35. Question 35 (NEET 2025, Q124)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyEasy
    In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called :
    1. Option A: Coleoptile
    2. Option B: Coleorhiza
    3. Option C: Integument
    4. Option D: Aleurone layer
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Aleurone layer

    Explanation

    In cereal seeds, the outermost layer of the endosperm is a protein-rich layer called the aleurone layer.

  36. Question 36 (NEET 2025, Q125)

    Excretory Products and Their EliminationZoologyHard
    Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule ?
    1. Option A: Option (1)
    2. Option B: Option (2)
    3. Option C: Option (3)
    4. Option D: Option (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Option (2)

    Explanation

    The proximal convoluted tubule mainly reabsorbs NaCl, HCO3⁻ and water, while the distal convoluted tubule is involved in selective secretion and absorption of ions such as K+ and H+. Therefore, option (B) is correct according to the answer key.

  37. Question 37 (NEET 2025, Q126)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoologyEasy
    Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.
    1. Option A: A
    2. Option B: B
    3. Option C: D
    4. Option D: C
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) C

    Explanation

    In a stirred tank bioreactor, the foam breaker is located near the top region of the reactor to prevent excessive foam formation during fermentation. In the given diagram, label C represents the foam breaker.

  38. Question 38 (NEET 2025, Q127)

    Sexual Reproduction in Flowering PlantsBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Option B: Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. Option C: A is true but R is false
    4. Option D: A is false but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A is true but R is false

    Explanation

    A typical mature embryo sac of angiosperms is 8-nucleate and 7-celled. The egg apparatus consists of one egg cell and two synergids, while the two polar nuclei are present in the central cell. Hence Assertion is true but Reason is false.

  39. Question 39 (NEET 2025, Q128)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotanyEasy
    A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :
    1. Option A: Mesosome
    2. Option B: Chromatophores
    3. Option C: Cristae
    4. Option D: Endoplasmic Reticulum
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Mesosome

    Explanation

    Mesosomes are infoldings of the plasma membrane in prokaryotic cells. They help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration.

  40. Question 40 (NEET 2025, Q129)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotanyMedium
    Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing. B. Removal of introns and joining of exons. C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A, B, C only
    2. Option B: B, C, D only
    3. Option C: B, C, E only
    4. Option D: C, D, E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) B, C, D only

    Explanation

    Post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes include splicing (removal of introns and joining of exons), 5’ capping by addition of a methylated guanosine cap, and 3’ polyadenylation by addition of adenine residues. Hence B, C and D are correct.

  41. Question 41 (NEET 2025, Q130)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotanyEasy
    What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
    1. Option A: Mendelian inheritance pattern
    2. Option B: Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
    3. Option C: Autosomal dominant pattern
    4. Option D: X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern

    Explanation

    Polygenic inheritance involves multiple genes contributing to a single trait and does not follow simple Mendelian ratios. Therefore, it is a non-Mendelian inheritance pattern.

  42. Question 42 (NEET 2025, Q131)

    BiomoleculesZoologyMedium
    Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?
    1. Option A: RuBisCo
    2. Option B: Carbonic anhydrase
    3. Option C: Succinate dehydrogenase
    4. Option D: Catalase
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Catalase

    Explanation

    Catalase is a haem-containing enzyme that catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.

  43. Question 43 (NEET 2025, Q132)

    The Living WorldBotanyMedium
    Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization. A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin. B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization. C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids. D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization. E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, C, E, B, D
    2. Option B: C, E, A, D, B
    3. Option C: A, C, E, D, B
    4. Option D: C, E, A, B, D
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) C, E, A, D, B

    Explanation

    Increasing order of complexity is: C → Monera (prokaryotes) E → Protista (cellular eukaryotes) A → Fungi D → Plantae B → Animalia Hence, the correct order is C, E, A, D, B.

  44. Question 44 (NEET 2025, Q133)

    EcosystemBotanyEasy
    Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
    1. Option A: S. R. Kashyap
    2. Option B: Ramdeo Misra
    3. Option C: Ram Udar
    4. Option D: Birbal Sahni
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Ramdeo Misra

    Explanation

    Ramdeo Misra is known as the father of Ecology in India due to his pioneering work in Indian ecology.

  45. Question 45 (NEET 2025, Q134)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotanyMedium
    Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    3. Option C: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Hershey and Chase confirmed DNA as genetic material. Euchromatin is loosely packed and light-stained. Frederick Griffith worked on Streptococcus pneumoniae. Heterochromatin is densely packed and dark-stained.

  46. Question 46 (NEET 2025, Q135)

    Human Health and DiseaseZoologyMedium
    Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to : A. A mass of proliferating cell B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to original location Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A, B only
    2. Option B: A, B, C only
    3. Option C: A, B, D only
    4. Option D: B, C, D only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    Neoplastic cells show uncontrolled proliferation, rapid growth, and invasion of surrounding tissues. Cells confined to the original location are benign and not characteristic of malignant neoplasia.

  47. Question 47 (NEET 2025, Q136)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both statement I and statement II are correct
    2. Option B: Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
    3. Option C: Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
    4. Option D: Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct

    Explanation

    DNA fragments isolated after gel electrophoresis can be used to construct recombinant DNA. In agarose gel electrophoresis, smaller fragments move faster towards the anode, while larger fragments remain near the wells.

  48. Question 48 (NEET 2025, Q137)

    BiomoleculesZoologyEasy
    Match List I with List II. Choose the option with all correct matches.
    1. Option A: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. Option B: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    3. Option C: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. Option D: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

    Adenosine is a nucleoside, adenylic acid is a nucleotide, adenine is a nitrogenous base, and alanine is an amino acid.

  49. Question 49 (NEET 2025, Q138)

    Human ReproductionZoologyMedium
    Consider the following : A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A and B are true
    2. Option B: A and C are true
    3. Option C: B and D are true
    4. Option D: B and C are true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A and B are true

    Explanation

    In females, meiosis begins during fetal development, whereas in males it begins at puberty, so statement A is true. The interval between meiosis I and meiosis II is very short in males but can extend for years in females, making statement B true. The first polar body forms after completion of meiosis I from the primary oocyte, so statement C is false. LH surge causes ovulation, not menstrual bleeding; menstruation occurs due to reduction in progesterone levels, so statement D is false.

  50. Question 50 (NEET 2025, Q139)

    The Living WorldBotanyEasy
    All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:
    1. Option A: Free living
    2. Option B: Endoparasite
    3. Option C: Symbiotic
    4. Option D: Ectoparasite
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Ectoparasite

    Explanation

    All living members of Cyclostomata are ectoparasites on some fishes. They possess a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.

  51. Question 51 (NEET 2025, Q140)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Option B: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. Option C: A is true but R is false
    4. Option D: A is false but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    The Golgi apparatus modifies, packages and transports materials synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum. ER vesicles fuse with the cis face of the Golgi body, and processed products are released through the trans face. Hence both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains Assertion.

  52. Question 52 (NEET 2025, Q141)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyMedium
    Match List I with List II : Choose the option with all correct matches.
    1. Option A: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. Option D: A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Scutellum is the cotyledon of a monocot seed. Groundnut is a non-albuminous seed. Epiblast is a rudimentary cotyledon in grasses. Perisperm represents the persistent nucellus.

  53. Question 53 (NEET 2025, Q142)

    The Living WorldBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Option B: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. Option C: A is true but R is false
    4. Option D: A is false but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Vertebrates belong to phylum Chordata because they possess a notochord during embryonic development. In adults, the notochord is replaced by a vertebral column. However, some chordates like urochordates and cephalochordates do not possess vertebral columns, so not all chordates are vertebrates.

  54. Question 54 (NEET 2025, Q143)

    Body Fluids and CirculationZoologyMedium
    Identify the statement that is NOT correct. (1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains. (2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds. (3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules. (4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
    1. Option A: Statement 1
    2. Option B: Statement 2
    3. Option C: Statement 3
    4. Option D: Statement 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Statement 3

    Explanation

    The antigen-binding site of an antibody is present at the variable region near the N-terminal ends of heavy and light chains, not at the C-terminal region. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

  55. Question 55 (NEET 2025, Q144)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoologyEasy
    Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -
    1. Option A: Complementary dsRNA
    2. Option B: Inhibitory ssRNA
    3. Option C: Complementary tRNA
    4. Option D: Non-complementary ssRNA
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Complementary dsRNA

    Explanation

    RNA interference (RNAi) occurs due to the presence of complementary double stranded RNA (dsRNA), which binds to specific mRNA and prevents its translation, thereby silencing gene expression.

  56. Question 56 (NEET 2025, Q145)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotanyMedium
    Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
    1. Option A: Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
    2. Option B: Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
    3. Option C: Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
    4. Option D: Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

    Explanation

    A dihybrid cross involving two independently assorting genes produces the classical Mendelian phenotypic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in the F2 generation.

  57. Question 57 (NEET 2025, Q146)

    BiomoleculesZoologyEasy
    Histones are enriched with -
    1. Option A: Lysine & Arginine
    2. Option B: Leucine & Lysine
    3. Option C: Phenylalanine & Leucine
    4. Option D: Phenylalanine & Arginine
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Lysine & Arginine

    Explanation

    Histone proteins are rich in basic amino acids lysine and arginine, which help them bind strongly to negatively charged DNA.

  58. Question 58 (NEET 2025, Q147)

    Human ReproductionZoologyEasy
    The first menstruation is called :
    1. Option A: Menopause
    2. Option B: Menarche
    3. Option C: Diapause
    4. Option D: Ovulation
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Menarche

    Explanation

    The first menstrual flow in human females is called menarche. It marks the beginning of reproductive maturity.

  59. Question 59 (NEET 2025, Q148)

    Chemical Coordination and IntegrationZoologyMedium
    Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A-II, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. Option C: A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    4. Option D: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Heart secretes atrial natriuretic factor, kidney secretes erythropoietin, gastro-intestinal tract secretes secretin, and adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone.

  60. Question 60 (NEET 2025, Q149)

    BiomoleculesZoologyEasy
    The protein portion of an enzyme is called :
    1. Option A: Cofactor
    2. Option B: Coenzyme
    3. Option C: Apoenzyme
    4. Option D: Prosthetic group
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Apoenzyme

    Explanation

    The protein part of an enzyme is called apoenzyme. The complete functional enzyme formed with its cofactor is called holoenzyme.

  61. Question 61 (NEET 2025, Q150)

    EcosystemBotanyMedium
    Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
    1. Option A: gm⁻²
    2. Option B: KCal m⁻²
    3. Option C: KCal m⁻³
    4. Option D: (KCal m⁻²) yr⁻¹
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) (KCal m⁻²) yr⁻¹

    Explanation

    Productivity of an ecosystem is measured as the rate of biomass or energy production per unit area per unit time. Therefore, the correct unit is (KCal m⁻²) yr⁻¹.

  62. Question 62 (NEET 2025, Q151)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotanyMedium
    Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
    1. Option A: Analogy, convergent
    2. Option B: Homology, divergent
    3. Option C: Homology, convergent
    4. Option D: Analogy, divergent
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Analogy, convergent

    Explanation

    Sweet potato is a modified root while potato is a modified stem. They perform similar functions but have different origins, making them analogous organs formed due to convergent evolution.

  63. Question 63 (NEET 2025, Q152)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotanyHard
    With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in one of the F3F_3 generation.
    1. Option A: 1/4
    2. Option B: 1/2
    3. Option C: 1/8
    4. Option D: Zero
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) 1/4

    Explanation

    From the pedigree, the trait follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. Crossing between a carrier female and affected male gives offspring probabilities of 1/2 carrier and 1/2 affected. Considering unaffected carrier condition specifically, the probability becomes 1/4.

  64. Question 64 (NEET 2025, Q153)

    Sexual Reproduction in Flowering PlantsBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Option B: Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. Option C: A is true but R is false
    4. Option D: A is false but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Tapetal cells are metabolically active cells with dense cytoplasm and often multinucleate condition. This multinucleate nature helps in efficient nourishment and development of microspores during pollen formation.

  65. Question 65 (NEET 2025, Q154)

    Sexual Reproduction in Flowering PlantsBotanyEasy
    How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
    1. Option A: 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
    2. Option B: 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
    3. Option C: 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
    4. Option D: No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

    Explanation

    The megaspore mother cell undergoes one meiotic division to form four megaspores. One functional megaspore then undergoes three successive mitotic divisions to form the mature female gametophyte (embryo sac).

  66. Question 66 (NEET 2025, Q155)

    Human ReproductionZoologyEasy
    Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
    1. Option A: Petunia
    2. Option B: Datura
    3. Option C: Pea
    4. Option D: Chilli
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) Pea

    Explanation

    Pea flower exhibits bilateral symmetry and is therefore zygomorphic. Petunia, Datura, and Chilli are actinomorphic flowers.

  67. Question 67 (NEET 2025, Q156)

    Human Health and DiseaseZoologyMedium
    After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like: A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer's patches Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: B, C, D only
    2. Option B: A, B, C only
    3. Option C: E, A, B only
    4. Option D: C, D, E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) C, D, E only

    Explanation

    Secondary lymphoid organs include spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, and Peyer's patches. Thymus and bone marrow are primary lymphoid organs.

  68. Question 68 (NEET 2025, Q157)

    Organisms and PopulationsBotanyMedium
    Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig gets pollinated by fig wasp. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: Both statement I and statement II are correct
    2. Option B: Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
    3. Option C: Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
    4. Option D: Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

    Explanation

    The fig–fig wasp association is a classic example of mutualism, making statement II correct biologically. However, statement I is incorrect because figs consumed commercially generally do not contain enclosed wasps in the edible fruit.

  69. Question 69 (NEET 2025, Q158)

    Cell: The Unit of LifeBotanyEasy
    What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis ?
    1. Option A: To separate the chromosomes
    2. Option B: To synthesize new DNA
    3. Option C: To repair damaged DNA
    4. Option D: To regulate cell growth
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) To separate the chromosomes

    Explanation

    Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes at the centromere and help separate sister chromatids during mitosis.

  70. Question 70 (NEET 2025, Q159)

    The Living WorldBotanyEasy
    Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
    1. Option A: Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
    2. Option B: Seeds are naked.
    3. Option C: Seeds are absent.
    4. Option D: Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Seeds are naked.

    Explanation

    Gymnosperms are characterized by naked seeds that are not enclosed within fruits.

  71. Question 71 (NEET 2025, Q160)

    Chemical Coordination and IntegrationZoologyMedium
    Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones : A. It causes pulmonary constriction B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone C. It causes piloerection D. It increases strength of heart contraction Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: C and D Only
    2. Option B: B, C and D Only
    3. Option C: A, C and D Only
    4. Option D: D Only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) B, C and D Only

    Explanation

    Adrenal medullary hormones (adrenaline and noradrenaline) are hyperglycemic hormones, cause piloerection, and increase the strength of heart contraction. They do not cause pulmonary constriction.

  72. Question 72 (NEET 2025, Q161)

    Biotechnology and Its ApplicationsZoologyEasy
    Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
    1. Option A: Human body will elicit strong immune response
    2. Option B: It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
    3. Option C: Because of structural variation
    4. Option D: Its bioavailability will be increased
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract

    Explanation

    Insulin is a protein hormone. If taken orally, digestive enzymes in the gastrointestinal tract break it down before it can enter the bloodstream.

  73. Question 73 (NEET 2025, Q162)

    The Living WorldBotanyMedium
    Match List I with List II. Choose the option with all correct matches.
    1. Option A: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. Option C: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. Option D: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Salvinia is a pteridophyte, Polytrichum is a bryophyte, Salvia is an angiosperm, and Ginkgo is a gymnosperm.

  74. Question 74 (NEET 2025, Q163)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotanyEasy
    Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
    1. Option A: George Gamow
    2. Option B: Francis Crick
    3. Option C: Jacque Monod
    4. Option D: Franklin Stahl
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) George Gamow

    Explanation

    George Gamow proposed that the genetic code is triplet in nature, consisting of three nucleotides coding for one amino acid.

  75. Question 75 (NEET 2025, Q164)

    Biodiversity and ConservationBotanyMedium
    Match List I with List II : Choose the option with all correct matches.
    1. Option A: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. Option B: A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    3. Option C: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    The Evil Quartet refers to causes of biodiversity loss, ex situ conservation includes cryopreservation, Lantana camara is an alien invasive species, and Dodo is an extinct species.

  76. Question 76 (NEET 2025, Q165)

    Chemical Coordination and IntegrationZoologyMedium
    Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
    1. Option A: Luteinizing hormone (LH)
    2. Option B: Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
    3. Option C: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    4. Option D: Adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

    Explanation

    ADH is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored and released from the posterior pituitary gland.

  77. Question 77 (NEET 2025, Q166)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyMedium
    Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is : A. Respiration and Locomotion B. Excretion and Locomotion C. Capture and transport of food D. Digestion and Respiration E. Digestion and Excretion Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: A and B Only
    2. Option B: A and C Only
    3. Option C: B and C Only
    4. Option D: B, D and E Only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A and C Only

    Explanation

    The water vascular system in echinoderms helps in locomotion, respiration, and capture and transport of food.

  78. Question 78 (NEET 2025, Q167)

    Human Health and DiseaseZoologyEasy
    Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
    1. Option A: Acquired Immunity
    2. Option B: Innate Immunity
    3. Option C: Cell-mediated Immunity
    4. Option D: Humoral Immunity
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Innate Immunity

    Explanation

    Innate immunity is present from birth and provides non-specific defense against pathogens.

  79. Question 79 (NEET 2025, Q168)

    The Living WorldBotanyEasy
    In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
    1. Option A: Sexual reproduction
    2. Option B: Asexual reproduction
    3. Option C: Nutrient absorption
    4. Option D: Gaseous exchange
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Asexual reproduction

    Explanation

    Gemmae are multicellular green structures found in bryophytes that help in vegetative propagation, which is a form of asexual reproduction.

  80. Question 80 (NEET 2025, Q169)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyMedium
    In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :
    1. Option A: Liver and intestine
    2. Option B: Liver and kidney
    3. Option C: Kidney and intestine
    4. Option D: Kidney and lower part of body
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Kidney and lower part of body

    Explanation

    The renal portal system in frog carries blood from the posterior part of the body to the kidneys before returning it to circulation.

  81. Question 81 (NEET 2025, Q171)

    Photosynthesis in Higher PlantsBotanyMedium
    Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
    1. Option A: It is active only in the dark.
    2. Option B: It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.
    3. Option C: It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
    4. Option D: It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.

    Explanation

    RuBisCO catalyzes the carboxylation of ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) during the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis.

  82. Question 82 (NEET 2025, Q172)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesZoologyMedium
    Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    1. Option A: C and D only
    2. Option B: A and B only
    3. Option C: D and E only
    4. Option D: B and C only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) C and D only

    Explanation

    Restriction enzymes, DNA ligase and DNA polymerase are commonly used in gene cloning. DNA mutase and DNA recombinase are not essential enzymes for the cloning process.

  83. Question 83 (NEET 2025, Q173)

    Plant Growth and DevelopmentBotanyMedium
    Read the following statements on plant growth and development. A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-dedifferentiation. D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds. Choose the option with all correct statements.
    1. Option A: A, B, C only
    2. Option B: A, C, E only
    3. Option C: A, D, E only
    4. Option D: B, D, E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    Auxins can induce parthenocarpy. Plant growth regulators may promote or inhibit growth. Dedifferentiation precedes redifferentiation. ABA is mainly a growth inhibitor, and apical dominance suppresses lateral bud growth.

  84. Question 84 (NEET 2025, Q174)

    Molecular Basis of InheritanceBotanyEasy
    Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
    1. Option A: α (alpha)
    2. Option B: σ (sigma)
    3. Option C: ρ (rho)
    4. Option D: γ (gamma)
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) ρ (rho)

    Explanation

    Rho (ρ) factor is involved in rho-dependent termination of transcription in prokaryotes.

  85. Question 85 (NEET 2025, Q175)

    Structural Organisation in AnimalsZoologyEasy
    Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following :
    1. Option A: The statement is true for water but false for land
    2. Option B: The statement is true for both the environment
    3. Option C: The statement is false for water but true for land
    4. Option D: The statement is false for both the environment
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (C) The statement is false for water but true for land

    Explanation

    In water, frogs respire mainly through skin. On land, respiration occurs through skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Hence the statement is false for water but true for land.

  86. Question 86 (NEET 2025, Q176)

    Principles of Inheritance and VariationBotanyEasy
    Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
    1. Option A: They are monozygotic twins.
    2. Option B: They are fraternal twins.
    3. Option C: They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
    4. Option D: They have 75% identical genetic content.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) They are fraternal twins.

    Explanation

    A boy and a girl twin pair cannot be monozygotic because monozygotic twins arise from the same zygote and therefore have the same sex. Hence, they must be fraternal (dizygotic) twins.

  87. Question 87 (NEET 2025, Q177)

    Microbes in Human WelfareBotanyMedium
    Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products? A. Aspergillus niger B. Lactobacillus C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae E. Propionibacterium sharmanii Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A and B only
    2. Option B: A and C only
    3. Option C: C and D only
    4. Option D: C and E only
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) A and C only

    Explanation

    Aspergillus niger is mainly used for citric acid production and Trichoderma polysporum is used in cyclosporin-A production. These are industrial products, not household products. Lactobacillus, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, and Propionibacterium sharmanii are involved in curd, bread/fermentation, and cheese preparation respectively.

  88. Question 88 (NEET 2025, Q178)

    Chemical Coordination and IntegrationZoologyMedium
    Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    2. Option B: A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    3. Option C: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. Option D: A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum, relaxin by ovary, melanocyte stimulating hormone by pars intermedia, and catecholamines by adrenal medulla.

  89. Question 89 (NEET 2025, Q179)

    Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesZoologyMedium
    The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    1. Option A: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. Option B: Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. Option C: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. Option D: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

    In blue-white screening, recombinant colonies contain inserted DNA that disrupts the lacZ gene and therefore appear white. Non-recombinant colonies retain lacZ activity and appear blue.

  90. Question 90 (NEET 2025, Q180)

    Organisms and PopulationsBotanyMedium
    Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
    1. Option A: Option (1)
    2. Option B: Option (2)
    3. Option C: Option (3)
    4. Option D: Option (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: (B) Option (2)

    Explanation

    The Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation is: dNdt=rN(K−NK)\frac{dN}{dt} = rN\left(\frac{K-N}{K}\right) where N is population size, r is intrinsic rate of increase, and K is carrying capacity.

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